Tuesday, November 30, 2010

APSCSC ASSISTANTS GRADE I and II EXAM QUESTIONS

LEGAL QUESTIONS:

Q.1. ‘Acquisition of res nullius’ is:
(a) original acquisition of ownership
(b) derivative acquisition of ownership
(c) mere custody of the thing
(d) accessory acquisition of ownership
Ans. (a)
Q.2. The cancellation of the driving license of a person is an example of:
(a) expiratory theory
(b) preventive theory
(c) reformative theory
(d) deterrent theory
Ans. (b)
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.3. Assertion (A): For legal duty, sanction is an essential element attached for its breach.
Reason (R): Presence of sanction is the test of legal duty.
Ans. (a)
Q.4. Which one of the following statements is related to Salmond ?
(a) Jurisprudence is lawyer’s perspective
(b) Jurisprudence is formal science of positive law
(c) Jurisprudence is science of the first principle of civil law
(d) Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of’ all principles of law
Ans. (c)
Q.5. According to Austin, sanction is:
(a) the permission to do an act
(b) the evil consequence of disobeying the command of the sovereign
(c) a right granted by law
(d) a power to inflict punishment
Ans. (b)
Q.6. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (Definitions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Jurists) (Definitions)
A. Ulpian                                              1.Lawyer’s    extra version
B. Julius Stone                                      2. Science of just and unjust.
C. Patterson                                           3.Philosophy of positive law
D. Austin                                               4. Social Science
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (b)
Q.7. Consider the following statements:
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concept is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Decisions can be deducted logically with recourse to morality
(d) The law as it is has to be kept separate from the law and ought to be.
Which of the statements given above are related to positivism?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Q.8. Which one of the following statements is not related is the Natural Law School?
(a) Evaluation of any part of the law must be done in terms of its effects
(b) There is a connection between means and ends
(c) Justice originates in pure practical reason
(d) Law consists of means of achieving ends
Ans. (a)
Q.9. Ratio decidendi of a case is which one of the following?
(a) The order of the court in the case
(b) The final decree passed by the Court
(c) The underlying principle or legal reasons on which the result of the case depends
(d) The part of the judgment which has persuasive effect
Ans. (c)
Q.10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                       List-II
A. Savigny                                   1.Evolutionary concept of history
B. Hegel                                       2.Evolution . with laissez-fair
C. Herbert Spenser                       3.Status to contract
D. Henry Maine                           4.Reflection of spirit of people in legal system
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (d)
Q.11. Consider the following statements:
1. Law is not made, but is already available in the soul of human beings
2. The nature of legal system is a reflection of spirit of the people
3. Law grows with the growth and strength with the strength of the people
4. Customary law dies when law is codified
Which of the statements given above are related to the “Volksgeist” theory propagated by Savigny?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) l and 4
Ans. (b)
Q.12. Match List (Statement) with List-II (Author) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                                     List-II
(Statement)                                                                              (Author)
A. Sociological School is ‘metajuristic’                                1.Julius Stone
B. Formal analysis of the structure of English law                2.Bentham
C. Jurisprudence is lawyer’s   extra version                           3.Austin
D. Distinguishes between expositional and censorial law     4.Kelsen
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 1 3  4 2
(c) 4 3  1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans.(c)
Q.13. Consider the following statements:
1. The outstanding fact of the society is the interdependence of men
2. The doctrine of sovereignty has become meaningless
3. Laws should be treated from the angle of purpose
4; The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty
Which of the statements given above can be subscribed to Duguit?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q.14. Which one of the following rights is a right in re-propia.?
(a) Easement
(b) License
(c) Lessee’s right
(d) Ownership
Ans.(d)
Q.15. Legislation grows out of theory but customary law grows of practice. The existence of legislation is essential which one of the following?
(a) de facto
(b) de jure
(c) Both de facto and de jure
(d) Dependent on recognition
Ans. (b)
Q.16. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-Il (Theory) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Jurists)                                                          (Theory)
A. Ihering                                                      1. Social solidarity
B. Bentham                                                   2. Social engineering
C. Roscoe Pound                                           3. Social control
D. Duguit                                                      4. Pleasure pain
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
Q.17. For a valid custom, there are certain prerequisites.
Which one out of the following conditions of a valid custom is not correct?
(a) Custom must be continuous
(b) Custom must be reasonable
(c) Custom might be contrary to statutory law
(d) Custom must not be immoral
Ans. (c)
Q.18. Consider the following statements:
1. Human being alone can be subjects of jural relations.
2. The members of a corporation and the beneficiaries of a foundation are the only ‘person’.
3. Juristic persons are treated as if they are human beings.
4. The dignity of being a juristic person has to be conceded by the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are related to
the purpose theory?
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 only
Ans. (d)
Q.19. A tenant went to jail for two years leaving his mistress in occupation. The mistress also left after sometime. The tenant claimed that he remained in possession.
Consider the following statements:
1. The tenant remained in possession as he had left his mistress in occupation.
2. The tenant did not remain in possession as he has gone to jail for two years.
3. The tenant was being unfair and as such he did not remain in possession.
4. The tenant remained in possession as he has been fair
Which one of statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 4 only
Ans. (c)
Q.20. X allows Y to put his goods in a room of X’s house. Y sends his agent Z to put the goods in the room. Z puts the goods in the room, locks it up and keeps the key with him. Who is in possession of the room?
(a) X
(b) Y
(c)  Z
(d) Both X and Z
Ans. (b)
Q.21. Which of the following is an element of  Ihering theory of possession?
(a) Overemphasis on the element of animus
(b) Equal emphasis on the elements of animus and corpus
(c) Owner like appearance in relation to a thing
(d) Immediate physical power to exclude any foreign agency.
Ans. (c)
Q.22. Ownership without possession can be termed as which
one of the following?
(a) No ownership
(b) Quasi ownership
(c) Incomplete ownership
(d) No-corporeal ownership
Ans. (d)
Q.23. Which one out of the following statements is not correct with reference to Savigny’s theory of Volksgeist?
(a) Law cannot be universal or general in character
(b) Law is found and not made
(c) Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of people
(d) Law is an instrument of social change and social reform
Ans. (d)
Q.24. Who among the following propounded the theory of possession which lays stress not on animus, but on de facto control?
(a) Salmond
(b) Pollock
(b) Pollock
(c) Holmes
(d) Jhering
Ans. (b)
Q.25. ‘A’ borrowed a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from ‘B’, which he did not repay for a period of three years. Now which
one of the following rights does ‘B’ have against ‘A’?
(a) Perfect right
(b) Imperfect right
(c) Proprietary right
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.26. What do Rights in re-aliena mean ?
(a) Rights in the things of others
(b) Rights in one’s own things
(c) Rights relating to property
(d) Rights to receive damages
Ans. (a)
Q.27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the List:
List-I                                                       List-Il
A. Supreme Legislation                 1.Law based on discretion of the authority
B. Executive Legislation                2. Law enacted by authority other than legislature
C. Debated Legislation                  3. Law enacted by the legislation
D. Conditional Legislation            4. Ordinance issued by the resident/Governor Law
made by judges with the case
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans. (a)
Q.28. Who among the following divided the sources of law into formal sources and material sources?
(a) Allen
(b) Keeton
(c) Salmond
(d) Gray
Ans. (c)
Q.29. Why is the expiatory theory of punishment obsolete now?
(a) It does not empower the State to impose punish
(b) It is incapable to reform the wrong doer
(c) It is based on moral doctrines
(d) It enlarges the limits of jurisprudence
Ans. (c)
Q.30. Eugen Ehrlich is a well known Jurist of sociological school of jurisprudence. Which one of the following statements may not be attributed to the theory propounded by him?
(a) Law is derived from social facts
(b) Law depends on social compulsion
(c) There is a ‘living law’ underlying the formal rule of the legal system
(d) State law has significant influence on shaping and development of living law
Ans. (d)
Q.31. Balancing of social interests and the doctrines of social engineering is the greatest contribution to sociological school. This is attributed to whom?
(a) Duguit
(b) Roscoe Pound
(c) Savigny
(d) Jhering.
Ans. (b)
Q.32. Which of the following factors are responsible for the resurgence in favour of natural law thinking in the twentieth century ?
1. The decline in social and economic stability in the twentieth century
2. The expansion in government activity
3. Growth of weapons of destruction and policies of. genocide
4. Growing inclination of people towards religion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q.33.Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (View About Law/Jurisprudence) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Jurists)                                            (View About Law/Jurisprudence)
A. Bentham                                               1. Concept of law
B. Austin                                                   2. Pure theory of law
C. Kelsen                                                  3. Limits of jurisprudence defined
D. Hart                                                      4. Province of jurisprudence determined
5. Concept of living law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 5 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 5 1
Ans. (b)
Q.34. There is a clear cut division between the spheres of the legislature and the judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which one of the following propounds this doctrine ?
(a) Analytical jurisprudence
(b) Historical jurisprudence
(c) Sociological jurisprudence
(d) Philosophical jurisprudence
Ans.(a)
Q.35. It is said that the next step forward in the long path of man’s progress must be from jurisprudence to jurimetrics. In this context, what does jurimetrics signify?
1. Speculation about law
2. Scientific investigation of legal problems
3. Increasing awareness of the fruits of interdisciplinary co-operation
4. Relationship between law, economy and society
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 1, 2and 4
Ans.(b)
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.36. Assertion (A) : Austin does speak of the science of law
Reason (R) : Science of law and philosophy of positive law are synonymous to him.
Ans. (c)
Q.37. The Constitution of India is federal in character because
(a) the Head of the State (the President) is elected by an electoral college cOnsisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
(b) the Governors of States are appointed by the President and they hold office during the pleasure of the President
(c) there is distribution of power between the Union and the States
(d) the amendment of the Constitution can be made only by following the procedure laid down in the Constitution and in some cases the amendment requires ratification by Legislatures of the States
Ans. (c)
Q.38. Consider the following judgments delivered by the Supreme Court of India in:
1. Keshvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. Re Berubari
3. Excel Weary. Union of India
The correct chronological sequence of the above judgments is:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) l, 2, 3
(c) 3, 1, 2
(d) 2, 1, 3
Ans. (d)
Q.39. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes introduced by an amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Balaji v. State of Mysore
(b) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
(c) Devadasan v. Union of India
(d) Periakaruppan v.State of Tamil Nadu.
Ans. (b)
Q.40. An Electricity Board terminated the Services of certain employees arbitrarily without giving notice. Which one of the following alternative remedies can be best adopted by the concerned employees?
(a) The employees can move the High Court by a writ as Electricity Board is included within the definition of State.
(b) The employees can make an appeal to the State Government.
(c) The employees can move the High Court after getting the permission of Electricity Board only.
(d) The employees can directly approach the Supreme Court for violation of a fundamental right
Ans. (a)
Q.41. Which one of the following is NOT ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 1.2 of the Constitution?
(a) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(b) A nationalized bank
(c) Institute of Medical Education and Research Chandigarh
(d) Grih Katyan Kendra
Ans. (a)
Q.42. Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is NOT a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
(a) Public order
(b) Morality
(c) Social Justice
(d) Health
Ans. (c)
Q.43 .Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Fundamental Right of the minorities in educational matters?
1. The minority has only the right to administer the educational institutions.
2. The . minority has the right to. establish and administer educational institutions.
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction.
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote efficiency and prevent maladministration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
Q.44. Arrange the following decision of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right relating to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence:
1. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiva Kant Shukla
3. A.K.Gopalan v. State of Madras
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 3, 2, 1
(b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2,3, l
(d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. (a)
Q.45. Fundamental duties have been add in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:
(a) Santhannam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi-Nehru Committee
Ans. (c)
Q.46. “Provisions relating to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be only promoted by constitutional methods. But they can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes.”
In which one of the following cases was the aforesaid principle enunciated?
(a) Moti Lal v. State of U.P.
(b) Civil Rights Committee v. Union of India
(c) Head Masters v. Union of India
(d) Magan Bhai v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
Q.47. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans. (b)
Q.48. In the event of occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and the Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till a new President is elected?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Senior-most Governor.
Ans. (c)
Q.49. The executive power of the Union is vested in the:
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Union Council of Ministers
Ans. (b)
Q.50. Who among the following can establish additional courts for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter concerned in the Union List?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) High Court of the concerned State
(c) Parliament
(d) Concerned State Legislature
Ans. (c)

APSCSC EXAM SCHEDULE

ANDHRA PRADESH STATE CIVIL SUPPLIES CORPORATION GRADE-I & GRADE-II ALL POSTS RECRUITMENT EXAM WILL HELD ON 12-12-2010 AT HYDERABAD CENTER ONLY.

For Details see http://www.civilsuppliesrecruitment.in

APPSC GROUP-1 PRELIMINARY EXAM RESULT


APPSC GROUP-1 PRELIMINARY EXAM RESULT (List of provisionally qualified candidates for appearing for Main Examination) CLICK HERE

TTD HELPER (WATER WORKS) RECRUITMENT

TTD HELPER (ELECTRICAL) RECRUITMENT

TTD SUB EDITORS RECRUITMENT

TIRUMALA TIRUPATI DEVASTHANAMS: TIRUPATI
MATTER FOR NOTIFICATION NO. 10/ 20102011
Roc.No: E10/16537/2010 dated: 24112010

Applications are invited from the eligible and interested candidates for the posts of
SUB EDITORS, TTD with the following qualifications and should reach to the Executive
Officer, T.T.D., K.T. Road, Tirupati on or before 13122010
with complete bio data particulars such as proof of age, educational qualifications, Technical Qualifications,
Marks Statements, Experience, caste etc. (Photocopies with attestation from the
Gazetted Officer) along with recent three passport size photos. The cover should be
superscribed as “Application for the post of SUB EDITOR, TTD”. The Management
is not responsible for postal delay or any other delays. Incomplete and applications
received after last date will not be entertained. The TTD Management is having right to
cancel notification / postpone the selections / Interviews / written tests if any without
any intimation to the candidates on administrative reasons and also subject to receipt of
approval from the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
PERSONS PROFESSING HINDU RELIGION
SHOULD ONLY APPLY

DETAILS OF THE POSTS
S.NO. NAME OF THE POST        NO. OF POSTS        
1         KANNADA                                    2                                   
2         ENGLISH                                       1
3         TELUGU (PUBLICATION
           WING & SAPTAGIRI)                  3
4         TAMIL                                          1
5          HINDI                                          1

6 Qualifications : (i) Must be a postgraduate or its
equivalent in the concerned language.
(ii) Must have Diploma in Journalism or
three years experience in a reputed
newspapers of concerned language will
be considered as additional qualification.
(iii) Must not have completed thirty five years of age.
7. Age : (i) Must have completed 18 years and must not have completed
35 (thirty five) years of age as on 01-07-2010.
(ii) Upper age relaxable by 5(five)
years in respect of B.C., S.C. and S.T.
Categories of candidates.
(iii) Upper age relaxable by 10 (ten)
years in respect of Physically
Handicapped candidates.
8. Scale of Pay : Rs. 1615042590
(IN RPS 2010)

TTD EDITOR IN CHIEF RECRUITMENT

TIRUMALA TIRUPATI DEVASTHANAMS: TIRUPATI
MATTER FOR NOTIFICATION NO. 09/ 20102011
Roc.No: E10/16536/2010 dated 27112010

Applications are invited from the eligible and interested candidates for the tenure
post of EDITOR IN CHIEF, TTD on tenure basis for a period of 03 (three) years with the
following qualifications and should reach to the Executive Officer, T.T.D., K.T. Road,
Tirupati on or before 10122010
with complete bio data particulars such as proof of
age, educational qualifications, Technical Qualifications, Marks Statements,
Experience, caste etc. ( Photocopies with attestation from the Gazetted Officer ) along
with recent three passport size photos. The cover should be superscribed as
“Application for the post of EDITOR IN CHIEF, TTD. The Management is not
responsible for postal delay or any other delays. Incomplete applications and
applications received after last date will not be entertained. The TTD Management is
having right to cancel notification / postpone the selections / Interviews / written tests if
any without any intimation to the candidates on administrative reasons and also subject
to receipt of approval from the Government of Andhra Pradesh.
PERSONS PROFESSING HINDU RELIGION SHOULD ONLY APPLY
DETAILS OF THE POST
TENURE POST FOR A PEROID OF THREE YEARS
1. Name of the Post : EDITOR IN CHIEF
2. No. of Posts : 01 (one)
3. Reservation Category : Open Category
4. Qualifications : Masters Degree in Telugu and Sanskrit with
Ph.D and should have knowledge in applied
linguistics with a fair number of valid and
reputed publications (minimum of 20 in
recognized Journals or books).
5. Age : Below 65 years and is relaxable in
deserving cases.
6. Pay : Commensurate with the qualifications
and experience & negotiable
7. Last date : 10-12-2010
PERSONS POSSSESSING HINDU RELIGION SHALL ONLY APPLY
For further details, other terms and conditions, please visit
TTD Website www.tirumala.org./ www.tirupati.org

Thursday, November 25, 2010

SRI PADMAVATHI MAHILA VISVAVIDYALAYAM Ph.D. NOTIFICATION

A.P. HORTICULTURAL UNIVERSITY Ph.D. NOTIFICATION

SOFTWARE TECHNOLOGY PARKS OF INDIA (STPI) RECRUITMENT

SOFTWARE TECHNOLOGY PARKS OF INDIA (STPI)
(An Autonomous Society under Department of Information Technology
Ministry of Communications & IT, Govt. of India)
J.V. Centre, P.B. No. 5517, Bakery Junction, Thiruvananthapuram-695034, Kerala, India

Applications are invited from the eligible candidates for following posts on contract basis for 3 years for STPI Hyderabad : 

  1. Administrative Officer (A-V) : 01 post, Pay Scale : Rs.9300-34800 grade pay Rs.4600, Age : 35 years
  2. Member Technical Support Staff ES-V : 01 posts, Pay Band :  PB-2 Rs.9300-34800 + 4200(GP), Age  : 35 years
  3. Assistant A-IV  : 04 posts, Pay Scale :  Rs.9300-34800+4200(GP) , Age : 35 years
  4. Assistant A-III  : 02 posts, Pay Scale :  Rs.5200-20200 +2800(GP) , Age : 30 years
  5. Assistant A-II  : 02 posts, Pay Scale :   PB-1 [Rs.5200-20200+2400(GP)], Age : 30 years
  6. Office Attendant S-I  : 01 post, Pay Scale :  Rs.5200-20200 +1800(GP) , Age : 30 years

How to ApplyCandidates should send their applications complete in all respects in the prescribed proforma to The Sr. Admn. Officer, Software Technology Parks of India, 6Q3, Cyber Towers, Hitec City, Madhapur, Hyderabad – 500 081 on or before 19/01/2011.

Kindly visit http://www.hyd.stpi.in/recruitment/recruitment.html for details and application format.

ISRO RECRUITMENT

ANDHRA PRADESH CHIEF MINISTERS LIST

Monday, November 22, 2010

APSRTC TST/MST EXAM PREPARATION PLAN

APSRTC TST/MST EXAM SCHEDULE

THE EXAMINATION DATE FOR THE POST OF TST/MST IS 12.12.2010 AND THE TIMINGS ARE 10.00 AM TO 1.00 PM FOR TST OR MST AND 10.00 AM TO 1.50 PM FOR CANDIDATES APPEARING FOR BOTH TST AND MST. 

THE EXAMINATION WILL BE AT ALL THE CENTERS MENTIONED IN THE APPLICATION. THE HALL TICKETS CAN BE DOWN LOADED FROM 01.12.2010.

INTER EXAMS SCHEDULE

10th CLASS EXAMS SCHEDULE

Thursday, November 18, 2010

ECIL FRESH ENGINEERS RECRUITMENT


ELECTRONICS CORPORATION OF INDIA LIMITED
(A GOVT. OF INDIA ENTERPRISE)
ECIL POST, HYDERABAD - 500062, A.P.
ADVERTISEMENT NO. 12/2010


Applications are invited for appointment of Graduate Engineers Trainee in Electronics Corporation of India Limited for fresh engineerin graduates.

Graduate Engineer Trainee

No. of Vacancy : 122


Qualification : Fresh Engineering Graduates

Disciplines :

ECE
EEE
E&I
CSE
CSIT
IT
CIVIL
MECHANICAL

The Detailed advertisement will be published also in Employment News 20-11-2010

FOR DETAILS VISIT CLICK HERE

National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB) RECRUITMENT


National Fisheries Development Board (NFDB), Hyderabad is a registered Society under
the administrative control of Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries
(Ministry of Agriculture), Government of India. It is established to work towards a blue
revolution in the country by launching a coordinated strategy, with a focus on increasing
fish production to over 10 million metric tones, doubling exports and generating additional
direct employment of 3.5 million.
NFDB invites applications for filling up the following posts on deputation (Foreign
Service terms) basis.
1. Executive Director (Technical): 2 posts
Pay Band-4 (Rs 37400-67000) with Grade Pay of Rs 8700/- (The total emoluments at the
minimum of the pay scale all inclusive as on 1.9.10 are Rs. 85315/-)
Qualifications:
Essential:
A. Officers of the Central Govt/State Government, Universities recognized research/Semi-
Govt. or autonomous or statutory organizations.
i) Holding analogous post on a regular basis in the parent department or
ii) With 5 (five) years’ regular service in posts in pay Band-3 (Rs 15600-39100) with Grade
Pay of Rs 7600/- (corresponding to pre-revised pay scale of Rs. 12000-375-16500) or
iii) With 10 years’ regular service in posts in pay Band-3 (Rs 15600-39100) with Grade Pay of
Rs 6600/- (corresponding to pre-revised pay scale of Rs. 10000-325-15200) or equivalent in
the parent cadre.
B. Possessing Master’s Degree in Fisheries Science/Aquaculture/Zoology with specialization
in Fisheries/ Marine Biology/ Industrial Fisheries/ Aquaculture Engineering/Civil
Engineering/Economics
Desirable: Knowledge of computers
1. Senior Executive (Technical):10 posts
Pay Band-3 (Rs 15600-39100) with Grade Pay of Rs 6600/- (Total emoluments at the
minimum of the pay scale all inclusive as on 1/9/2010 are Rs. 43490/-)
Qualification
Essential:
A. Officers of the Central Govt/State Government, Universities recognized research/Semi-
Govt. or autonomous or statutory organizations.
i) Holding analogous post on a regular basis in the parent cadre/department; or
ii) With 5 (five) years’ regular service in posts in pay Band-2 (Rs 9300-34800) with Grade Pay
of Rs 5400/- (corresponding to pre-revised pay scale of Rs. 8000-275-13500) in the parent
cadre or
iii) With 8 years’ regular service in posts in pay Band-2 (Rs 9300-34800) with Grade Pay of
Rs 4600/- (corresponding to pre-revised pay scale of Rs. 6500-200-10500) or equivalent in
the parent cadre and possessing.
B. Master’s Degree in Science/Aquaculture/Zoology with specialization in Fisheries/ Marine
Biology/ Industrial Fisheries/ Aquaculture Engineering/Civil Engineering/Economics
Desirable: Knowledge of computers
2. Executive (Technical): 2 posts
Pay Band-2 (Rs 9300-34800) with Grade Pay of Rs 4200/- (Total emoluments at the
minimum of the pay scale all inclusive as on 1/9/2010 are Rs 25945/-)
N.B: Grade pay of Rs. 4600/- is under consideration of the Government of India.
Qualification
Essential:
A. Officers of the Central Govt/State Government, Universities recognized research/Semi-
Govt. or autonomous or statutory organizations.
i) Holding analogous post on a regular basis in the parent department or
ii) With 3 (three) years’ regular service in the pay scale of Rs. 5500-175-9000/Pay Band-2
(Rs 9300-34800) with Grade Pay of Rs 4200/- or equivalent in the parent department and
B. Possessing Master’s Degree in Fisheries Science/Aquaculture/Zoology with specialization
in Fisheries/Marine Biology/Industrial Fisheries/Aquaculture Engineering/Economics from a
recognized University
Desirable: Knowledge of computers
Important Note:
1. Period of deputation permissible: 3 years
2. Officers serving under the Central/State Governments/Union Territories Admn/
Central/State Public Sector Undertakings/Autonomous Organizations in the Pay Scales/Pay
Bands (with the prescribed Grade Pay) as indicated above/equivalent may apply.
3. The maximum age-limit for appointment by transfer on deputation shall not exceed 56
years as on the last date for receipt of applications.
4. Applications from eligible officers may be forwarded through proper channel along with
copies of the last 5 years’ ACRs (duly attested by an officer of the level of Under Secretary or
above), vigilance clearance and integrity certificate. It may also be certified that no major or
minor penalty was imposed on the officer during the last 10 years of his/her service.
5. Applications not received through proper channel or received after the due date or without
ACRs, vigilance clearance, integrity certificate and certificate regarding major/minor penalties
or otherwise found incomplete will not be considered.
6. The pay and other service conditions of the official selected will be governed by the
provisions as contained in the Government of India, DOP&T O.M. No. 2-29/91-Estt. (Pay.II)
dated 05.01.1994 and O.M. No.2-8/97-Estt. (Pay.II) dated 11.03.1998 as amended from time
to time.
7. On the performance of selected candidates being found satisfactory, they will be required
to work at the board for at least two years. The Board also reserves the right to revert them
prematurely if their performance is found unsatisfactory.
8. Mere possession of the minimum qualifications/experience prescribed does not entitle the
applicant to be called for interview, and NFDB reserves the right to shortlist the applications
received to a reasonable number based on qualifications/experience higher then the
minimum prescribed. The number of vacancies is only tentative. The Board reserves
the right to increase or decrease the number of vacancies at the time of selection. The
Board also reserves the right to not to fill any or all posts for administrative reasons.
The Board also reserves its right to select the candidates to a lower post in case the
candidates are found suitable.
9. Heads of Institutions are requested to bring this Circular to the notice of their officers and
staff members and forward the applications of the interested personnel for consideration on
deputation (Foreign Service terms) basis to the Chief Executive, NFDB so as to reach him
within sixty days from the date of publication of this advertisement in the Employment
News, duly enclosing the following certificates:
Certificates to be furnished by the Employer while forwarding the application for
deputation:
1. Certified that the particulars of the officer have been verified and are found to be correct.
The date of his/her appointment in the present substantive grade of
…………………………...is…………………..
2. Certified that he/she is clear from vigilance angle and that no disciplinary proceedings are
either pending or contemplated against him/her.
3. Certified that the integrity of the officer is beyond doubt.
4. Certified copies of ACRs for the last five years in respect of the officer are enclosed
herewith.
5. Certified that no major/minor penalties were imposed on the officer during the last ten
years of his/her service.
Applications, in the prescribed format as given below, duly filled in and signed and with
copies of all relevant documents enclosed, should reach the Chief Executive, National
Fisheries Development Board, Block No. 401– 402, Maitri Vihar, HMDA Complex, Ameerpet,
Hyderabad-500038 within 60 days from the date of publication of this advertisement in the
Employment News(16-22 October 2010) i.e. 22-12-2010.

FOR DETAILS AND APPLICATION FORM VISIT CLICK HERE

Friday, November 12, 2010

A.P. FOREST DEPARTMENT RECRUITMENT RELEASED OFFICIAL MODEL PAPERS

Instructions to the Candidates:
Following instructions are issued to the candidates intending to appear for the written examination in connection with the selection to the posts of Assist Forest Beat Officer, Forest Beat Officer and Forest Section Officer. The candidates are requested to go through the instructions for observance.

1. The candidates appearing for the selection to the posts of Assistant Forest Beat Officer / Forest Beat Officer / Forest section officer will have to appear for written examination consisting of two papers i.e., one paper for
essay writing and the other paper for General Knowledge and General Mathematics.
2. Each paper is for a duration of 2 hours and for a maximum marks of 100. In case of second paper consisting of General Knowledge and Mathematics, each of these subjects will have 50 marks with a total
duration of 2 hours.
3. In essay writing paper, two questions are to be answered, one in 500 words and the other in 250 words. In the second paper consisting of General Knowledge and Mathematics, the pattern of question paper for
General knowledge is as follows:
- In case of Forest Section Officers:
The General Knowledge part will have three parts. Part – A is of “multiple choice” with 25 questions (one mark each), Part-B is of “fill in the blanks” with 15 questions (one mark each) and Part-C consists of “Match the following” (for 10 marks).
- In case of Forest Beat Officers:
The General knowledge part will have two parts. Part-A is of “multiple choice” with 30 questions (one marks each) and Part-B is of “fill in the blanks” with 20 questions (one mark each).
- In case of Assistant Beat Officers:
The General knowledge part will have two parts. Part-A is of “multiple choice” with 30 questions (one marks each) and Part-B is of “True or False statements” with 20 questions (one mark each).

The pattern for the Mathematics paper is the same for all the three cadres i.e., for Assistant Beat Officer / Forest Beat Officer / Forest Section Officer. The mathematics part of the question paper consists of two parts, i.e., Part- A with 15 “multiple choice” questions (two marks for each) and Part-B with 5 “fill in the blank” questions (four marks each).

The syllabus to be followed as regards mathematics paper is:
- For Forest Section Officers:
Up to 10 class State syllabus in mathematics.
- For Forest Beat Officers: Up to 9th class State syllabus in mathematics.
- For Assistant Forest Beat Officers: 
Up to 8th class syllabus in mathematics.

Qualifying marks for selection in written examination:
A candidate needs to get at least 35% marks in each of the subjects and 40% aggregate in the written examination, in order to qualify for the next stage of the selection i.e., for walking test. Here it is clarified that, the second paper of the written examination consists of General Knowledge and Mathematics and it is
necessary to obtain at least 35% marks in each of these i.e., in General Knowledge and Mathematics in addition to getting at least 35% marks in essay writing paper. An aggregate of 40% marks is to be obtained in both the papers put together in order to qualify in the written examination.

If large number of candidates gets qualified in written examination, the candidates selected for written examination will be limited to 1:3 ratio, as per the rules in force.

The question papers are set in both Telugu and English languages.
However, the candidates can answer the papers in Urdu also if they desire. (Only if the candidates have indicated in the application form that they are going to write the exam in Urdu).


APSRTC MECHANICAL & ARTISIAN RECRUITMENT

NI-MSME RECRUITMENT

JNAFAU ADMISSIONS

Chief Jewellery Officer In TTD on Tenure basis

TIRUMALA TIRUPATI DEVASTHANAMS : TIRUPATI
NOTIFICATION
Roc. No. E10/13845/2010.
Dated : 27-10-2010
 Applications are invited to the eligible and interested candidates for the post of Chief Jewellery Officer in TTD subject to pending receipt of approval from Govt.Of Andhra Pradesh with the following qualifications and reach to the Executive Officer , TTD, K.T.Road, Tirupati on or before 30-11-2010 with complete biodata perticulars such as proof of age, educational qualification, technical qualifications, marks statements, experience certificate, cast certificate etc.,( photo copies with attestation from the gazetted officer) along with recent (3) three passport size photos. The cover should superscribed as "Application for the post of Chief Jewellery Officer In TTD on Tenure basis" . The TTD Management is not responsible for postal delay or other delays. Incomplete and late applications will not be entertained after the due date. The TTD Management has right to cancel / postpone the selections / interviews / notification without any intimation to the candidates on administrative reasons.
PERSONS PROFESSING HINDU RELIGION SHOULD ONLY APPLY
 
Term
:
For a period of three years
Qualifications
:
Shall have qualification of B.Tech in Metallurgy and Diploma in Gemology from reputed institute. He will also have an experience of not less than 15 years in valuing, assaying Gold, Silver, Diamonds precious stones, Gems etc., from a reputed organization preferably from a Government organization.
Deputation
:
Persons with above qualifications working in Government of A.P./Government of India / P.S.U.S. Institutions are eligible to apply through proper channel. They are entitled to get all such benefits as applicable in their parent department.
Age
:
Between 40 years and below 60 years.
Age is relaxable on the condition of exeptional qualification or if no qualified candidate is available within the above age bond
Scale of Pay
:
Pay commensurate with the qualifications and experience and negotiable
Last Date
:
30-11-2010

Wednesday, November 3, 2010

EASTERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P. LIMITED. MANAGER- CSC RECRUITMENT

CORPORATE OFFICE ; P&T COLONY, SEETHAMMADHARA
VISAKHAPATNAM – 530 013
RECRUITMENT NOTIFICATION
(FOR MANAGERS – CUSTOMER SERVICE CENTER – 3 Nos.)
The APEPDCL invites applications from eligible Engineering Graduates/Diploma in
Electrical Engineering for filling up of the three posts of Manager (Customer Service
Centers) on contract basis.
MANAGER (CUSTOMER SERVICE CENTER) POSTS :-
BC-A         OC(PH)
                  (OH)              BC-B            TOTAL
W                 W                   W
1                    1                    1                       3
* W = Women; The above vacancies includes Backlog vacancies.
** These vacancies are subject to variation and based on the necessity and
availability of work.
AGE : Around 45 years.
QUALIFICATIONS: B.E/B.TECH/A.M.I.E./Electrical & Electronics Engineering
or Diploma in Electrical Engineering or equivalent qualification in Electrical Branch
from any recognized University in India. Note: If there is any deviation from the
above qualifications, the candidate shall produce the equivalency certificate viz.,
Registrar of the University or Secretary of the institute for accepting his/her
application. Diploma Certificate course in Consumer relations/Customer service or
equivalent is preferable as added qualification.

Last date of submission of application: on or before 20.11.2010.

FOR DETAILS AND APPLICATION FORM CLICK HERE

EASTERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P. LIMITED. LDC/TYPIST RECRUITMENT

EASTERN POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P. LIMITED.
OPERATION CIRCLE: VISAKHAPATNAM

NOTIFICATION.

Applications are invited from the Visually Handicapped Candidates for filling up of
Backlog Vacancies of 1 No. LDC VH (General) and 1 No. Typist VH (Womens) reserved for
Visually Handicapped. Last date for submission of filled in applications on or before
15.11.2010.

Details can be downloaded from our web site www.apeasternpower.com.

CENTRAL POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P.LTD. SUB ENGINEERS RECRUITMENT

CENTRAL POWER DISTRIBUTION COMPANY OF A.P.LTD.
MINT COMPOUND :: HYDERABAD –04.



NOTIFICATION

Applications are invited for the post of Sub-Engineer/Electrical on regular basis with the eligible candidates possessing DEE/DEEE/LEE from any of institutions recognized by State or Central Government. Candidates possessing BE/B.Tech/AMIE in Electrical Engineering discipline are also eligible.

                Sd/-
DIRECTOR (HRD & IR)



Note:-
Detailed Notification will  be placed shortly at www.apcentralpower.com

SELECTION PROCEDURE:

i) The selection of candidates for appointment will be made purely based on written
examination without oral Interview duly following the Rule of Reservation/Local
area reservation and other terms notified or modified from time to time
ii) Only those candidates who qualify in the written examination by being ranked
high, community wise will be called for verification of Original Certificates in 1:1
ratio.
(iii) The minimum qualifying marks in the written test for the above selection
process shall be as follows:
OC - 40%
BC - 35%
SC/ST - 30%
Or as per Rules
Note: Mere securing minimum qualifying marks doesn’t vest, any right to a
candidate for being called for verification of original certificates and by mere calling the candidate for certificate verification in the ratio of 1:1 doesn’t vest any right to a candidate for selection.


Details of Written Examination:
Date of examination: The written examination will be held on 12.12.2010 from 10 A.M. to 12 Noon.

SYLLABUS FOR WRITTEN EXAMINATION –SUB-ENGINEERs(ELECTRICAL)-2010
 
UNIT 1: BASIC ELECTRICAL ENGINEERING
Ohms and Kirchhoff’s Laws, star/delta transformation, Network theorems, Power and
Energy, Heating effects of Electric current, Magnetic effects, Electro magnetic induction,
Electrostatics. Batteries, Types of Electrical Engineering Materials – Conducting, Semiconducting,
Magnetic, Insulating, Di-electric – Properties and Uses.


UNIT II: D.C.MACHINES & MEASUREMENTS
D.C.Generators: Construction, Operation, types, EMF Equation, Windings, Characteristics,
Efficiency and Parallel operation.
DC Motors: Principle of operation, Back EMF, Torque Equation, Types, Characteristics,
Starters, Speed Control, Losses, Efficiency and Testing.
Measuring Instruments: Classification, Principle of Operation of moving Coil, Moving Iron,
Dynamometer type, Induction type meters. Instrument Transformers, Induction type Energy
meter, M.D.Indicator, TRI VECTOR Meter, PP Meter, Frequency meter, Measurement of
Resistance, Transducers and Sensors – Types, Thermistor, Thermocpuple, Pressure
Transducers and Strain gauges.


UNIT III: A.C.CIRCUITS AND TRANSFORMERS
A.C.Circuits: Fundamentals, Series and parallel R-L-C Circuits, Resonant circuits,
Polyphase circuits, Measurement of power by 2 Wattmeters.
Transformer: Single-phase Transformer, Construction, Operation, Equivalent circuit,
Polyphase Circuits, Measurement of power by 2 Wattmaters.


UNIT IV: A.C.MACHINES
Alternators: Construction, Operation, EMF equation, regulation, testing and parallel
operation.
Synchronous Motors: Operation and performance, effects of Excitation, V-Curve and
inverted V-Curve, methods of starting and uses.
Three-Phase induction Motors: Construction, Principle of Operation, Torque Equation,
Sliptorque characteristics, losses, efficiency, speed control, starters, double-cage motor.
Single-phase induction Motor: Types, Principle of operation, applications, single-phase
commutator motors: Types, Principle of operation and applications.


UNIT V: POWER SYSTEM GENERATION & PROTECTION
Generating Stations: Working, components, Comparison of Thermal, Hydel, Nuclear
stations, Pollution control, Combined Working, Power Stations auxiliaries, Characteristic
Curves and Important Terms, Types of tariffs, power factor correction and economy.
Power Systems Protection: Circuit Breakers Types, Principles of operation and uses.
Current Limiting reactors, Relays – Classification, Principle of Operation of Induction types
over current relay, Directional and Non-directional relays, differential relays and distance
relays, Protection of alternations, Transformers, Bus-bars, transmission lines, Lightening
arrestors, neutral grounding.


UNIT VI: TRANSMISSION AND DISTRIBUTION AND ELECTRIC BRAKING
Transmission and distribution: Types of supply systems, Transmission Line parameters,
inductance and capacitance, performance of short and medium lines, regulation, Ferranti
effect, Corona, Basic concepts of HVDC Transmission, Advantage and disadvantages of
HVDC Transmission.
Components of lines, supports, conductor spacing, ground clearance and sag, insularors,
voltage distribution across the string, string efficiency, methods of improving string
efficiency, Earthing and layout of sub-stations.
Cables – Classification, insulation resistance, specifications, Distribution – Radial and ring
distributors, variation of load voltage, Electric Braking – types of braking.


UNIT VII: ELECTRIC UTILISATION AND TRACTION
Lighting: Laws of Illumination, Types of Lamps, Lighting Schemes for indoor, outdoor, street
and factory.
Heating and Welding: Principles and application of different resistance heating, direct and
indirect arc furnaces, core and core less induction furnaces, di-electric heating, Welding
generators, welding transformers.
Electric Traction: Systems of Train Electrification, Speed-time Curves for different services,
schedule speed, Tractive Effort, Specific Energy Consumption, Traction system auxiliaries,
Traction motor.



UNIT VIII: ELECTRICAL ESTIMATION, ELECTRIC DRIVES AND AUTOMATION
Electrical Wiring: Tools, Wires, Types of wiring, Accessories, Lamp Circuits, Estimating and
Costing of domestic, industrial power, irrigation pump sets, Rural electrification,
departmental tests, earthing.
Electric Drives: Different Types, nature of load, rating of motor types of enclosures, motor
for different drives.
Automation: Basics of control system, Basic principles of Programmable Logic controller
(PLC), Parts of PLC, Simple applications with PLC.


UNIT IX: BASIC ELECTRONICS AND DIGITAL ELECTRONICS
Semi-Conductor devices: N Type & P type, Zener diode, PNP and NPN Transistors,
Transistor confitgurations, input and output characteristics, power supplies – half and full
wave rectifiers. Filters Zener diode regulation, Special devices-JT, FET,LED, SCR, Opto
Coupler, Photo diode, Photo Transistor.
Amplifiers: Types, Principles of operation, Characteristics
Oscillators: Types, Operation and application of each.
Modulation and De-Modulation: Principle of AM & FM systems, CRO-Working, Electronic
Testers, Advantages, function Generators, Industrial application of timers, Basics of IC’s.
Digital Electronics: Different numbering systems, inter Conversions Boolean Algebra, Logic
families, performance of AND, OR, NOT, NOR, NAND gates, combinational Logic Circuits,
Sequential logic circuits, Resistors and Memories, A/D and D/A converters.


UNIT X: POWER ELECTRONICS AND MICRO CONTROLLER
Power Electronic Devices: Construction and working of SCR, GTOSCR, DIAC, TRIAC,
Voltampere characteristics, Trigging of SCR using UJT Protection.
Convertors, AC regulators, Choppers, Invertors and Cycloconvertors:
Types of Convertors, Working of AC regulators and choppers. Types of invertors, Principles
of working, Basic principle of working of Cycloconvertors.
Speed control of D.C.Motors by using convertors and choppers, Speed control of induction
motor by; using AC Voltage regulators-V/f Control, Switched mode power supplies (SMPS),
UPS.
Micro Controllers: Architecture of 8051, Instruction set of 8051, Programming concepts,
peripheral ICS – Function, features, Pin details and interfacing of 8255,8251, 8279, 8257,
8259, RS-232.



The Question paper consists of one hundred multiple choice objective type questions, to be
answered on the OMR Answer sheet using HB pencil in 2 hours.