Showing posts with label AP CIVIL SUPPLIES. Show all posts
Showing posts with label AP CIVIL SUPPLIES. Show all posts

Saturday, December 11, 2010

ANDHRA PRADESH STATE CIVIL SUPPLIES CORPORATION GRADE I &II HUMAN RESOURSE MANAGEMENT PRACTICE QUESTIONS



1. Which one of the following statements is not correct’?

In the matrix structure of organization, there is:

(a) dual chain of command

(b) better communication

(c) more flexibility

(d) less conflict

Ans. (d)


2. Consider the following statements:

1. Model synthesis of organization is based on the fact that all organizations must deal with uncertainty

2. Sources of uncertainty are external as well as internal

3. If the sources of organizational uncertainty are internal, then the organization will try to reduce uncertainty by decentralizing

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1555555 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only I and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

3. Consider the following statements:

Organization development is different from

1. Management development which is action oriented.

2. Operations research which is not human value oriented.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

4. Which of the following are the outcomes of organizational development?

1. Improvement in interpersonal skills of members

2. More organic organization

3. Resolution of conflicts through interactive methods

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Activities classified for line authority differ in each organization.

2. For small organizations, all positions may be line positions.

3. Staff authority is based on expert power.

Which of the statements given above are correct’?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1 and 3

Ans. (c)

6. Consider the following statements:

1. Decentralization has the same advantages as delegation.

2. Decentralization leads to more flexibility in an organization.

3. Decentralization leads to slower decision making in raid1y changing environment

Which of the statements given above are correct’?

(a) l, 2 and 3

(b) Only l and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only I and 3

Ans. (b)

7. Which one of the following is not a function of a leader in an organization?

(a) Motivating employees

(b) Fixing the remuneration package of the employees

(c) Resolving conflict

(d) Selecting the most effective communication channel

Ans. (b)

8. Consider the following statements:

1. Control helps to monitor environment changes and their effects on the organization’s progress.

2. Delegation of authority in participative management does not change the nature of the

control process.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following techniques used by organizations engaged in public administration are based on network analysis?

1. Organization and Methods (O. and M.)

2. PERT

3. Critical Path Method

4. Work Study

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1 and 4

Ans. (c)

10. Which one of the following is not a defense public sector undertaking?

(a) Bharat Dynamics Ltd.

(b) Mishra Dhatu Nigam Ltd.

(c) Bharat Earth Movers Ltd.

(d) Bharat Heavy Electrical Ltd.

Ans. (d)

11. Which of the following is/are essential to delegate authority in an organization?

1. Establish feedback channels

2. Others must not know that delegation has occurred

3. Delegate’s range of discretion should not be specified

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (a)

12. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Wider span of control is consistent with efforts of the organizations to

(a) get closer to customers

(b) speed up decision making

(c) reduce cost

(d) improve supervision

Ans. (d)

13. Consider the following statements:

Computer technology has made the concept of:

1. authority more relevant

2. authority less relevant

3. chain of command more relevant

4. unity of command less relevant

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) l and 3

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Ans. (c)

14. Consider the following statements:

Human diseconomies from increasing work specialization beyond a limit surface in the form of:

1. stress

2. poor quality of output

3. increased absenteeism

4. high turnover from the organization

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(b) Only 1 and 4

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1

Ans. (a)

15. Who among the following developed the classic three- step model of organizational change?

(a) Kurt Lewin

(b) H. Simon

(c) J.P. Kotter

(d) L.R. Murphy

Ans. (a)

16. Who developed the concept that tension between worker’s ‘logic of sentiment’ and manager’s ‘logic of cost and efficiency’ could lead to conflict within the organization?

(a) Herbert Simon

(b) Chester Barnard

(c) Fredrick W. Taylor

(d) Elton Mayo

Ans. (d)

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Through the Hawthorne Studies, Elton Mayo could support Mary Parker Follett’s theory that the lack of attention to human relationships was a major flaw in other management theories.

2. The book – The Human Problems of an Industrialized Civilization was written by Mary Parker Follett.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only l

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

18. Match List- I (Leadership Type) with List-II (Main idea/ Model) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List -I (Leadership Type)                     List-II (Main idea/Model)

A. Participative                                 1.Vroom and Yettons Normative Model

B. Contingency                                 2. The Managerial Grid

C. Behavioral                                    3. Likerts Leadership Style

D. Situational                                    4. Fiedler’s Least Preferred Co-worker (LPC) Theory

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 3 1 2 4

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 3 4 2 1

Ans. (d)

19. Which of the following are among the 14 principles of management in the classical management work of Henri Fayol?

1. Personnel tenure

2. Unity of command

3. Core competence

4. Scalar chain

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 2 and 4

(c) Only l and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

20. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

Scholar                           Viewpoint

1. F. Riggs                    In developing countries, bureaucracy also performs political roles

2. Harold Laski            Bureaucracy is a threat to democratic government

3. S. Eisenstadt            Bureaucracy is the most rational form of organization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

21. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

1. Cybernetic Theory               : Norbert Weiner

2. Task-Technology                 : Joan Woodward

3. Classical Approach to          : Frederick Taylor

organizational design

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (a)

22. Consider the following statements:

1. Defects in co-ordination inherent in large-scale organizations may apply to an organization whether the organization is bureaucratic or not.

2. Chester Barnard criticized Weber for failing to analyze the correspondence of behaviour in organizations with organizational blueprints.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

Directions: The following nine (9) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R).’ You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) A is false but R is true

23. Assertion (A): Behavioral approach to leadership believes that individual’s trained-in appropriate leadership would be able to lead more effectively.

Reason (R): Behaviors unlike traits can be learned.

Ans. (a)

24. Assertion (A): A bureaucrat’s capacity to adapt to changing circumstances is far less than that conceived by those who drew up the organizational rules.

Reason (R): In order to be perceived as effective, the bureaucrat behaves consistently and follows rules strictly.

Ans. (a)

25. Who among the following expressed the view that virtually all the decisions in an organization are such that they do not maximize, but only suffice?

(a) George Miller

(b) Herbert A. Simon

(c) Kurt Lewin

(d) Abraham Maslow

Ans. (b)

26. Match List- I (Early Model of Motivation) with List -II (Person) and select the correct answer using the code

given below the lists:

List -I                                                List -II

(Early Model of Motivation)                  (Person)

A. Traditional Model                             1. Douglas McGregor

B. Human Relations                               2. Frederick Taylor

C. Human Resource Model                    3. Elton Mayo

Codes:

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 2 3 1

(c) 1 3 2

(d) 2 1 3

Ans. (b)

27. Consider the following statements:

1. Henri Fayol was the first to describe the fly functions of management.

2. Henri Fayol was a French management theorist whose theories concerning human relations were widely influential in the beginning of the 20th Century.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

28. Consider the following statements:

1. Much of current knowledge of selection techniques, employee training and work design is built on the work of Hugo Munsterberg.

2. Hugo Munsterberg combined scientific management and industrial psychology in his work.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only l

(b) Only2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (c)

29. Which one of the following is not i component of Max Weber’s ideal bureaucracy?

(a) Job specialization

(b) Impersonality

(c) Career orientation

(d) Organization as a social system

Ans. (d)

30. Who among the following conducted one of the most widely cited pig iron experiment as an example of scientific management?

(a) Robert Owen

(b) Frederick W. Taylor

(c) Chester Barnard

(d) Mary Parker Follett

Ans. (b)

31. The systems approach is mainly based on the work of which one of the following?

(a) Chris Argyris

(b) Chester Barnard

(c) Ludwig Bertalanffy

(d) A. Etzioni

Ans. (c)

32. What is a ‘Shadow Cabinet’ in the British system?

(a) A group of young members of the ruling party

(b) A group of members from the opposition party who scrutinize some functions of the government and present alternative policy

(c) A team of intellectuals who advise the Cabinet

(d) A Cabinet Committee that functions under the guidance of the Cabinet

Ans. (b)
33. Consider the following statements about the features of the administrative system in France:

1. Ministers are more concerned with direct administration in the provinces.

2. Specialist personnel are found only in small numbers in the advisory and policy-making roles.

3. Freedom of executive action from the legislature’s supervision increased under the Fifth Republic.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) Only 1 and 3

Ans. (a)

34. Which of the following Departments of the Government of India were put under the Cabinet Secretariat at the time of their creation?

1. Department of Electronics

2. Department of Scientific and Industrial Research

3. Department of Personnel

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

35. Consider the following statements:

1. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) had recommended that the Department of Personnel of a State should be put under the charge of the Chief Secretary of the State.

2. Chief Secretary of a State is not involved in any manner in the promotion of State Civil officers to the All-India Services.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

36. Who among the following are administratively linked with the Department of Personnel and Training?

1. Central Bureau of Investigation

2. Union Public Service Commission

3. Central Vigilance Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (d)

37. Who among the following introduced the concepts and phrases— “conflict resolution” and “the task of leadership”?

(a) Henri Fayol

(b) Elton Mayo

(c) Mary Parker Follett

(d) Chester Barnard

Ans. (c)

38. Consider the following statements:

1. The rationalist paradigm of public policy is dominated by scholars of public administration rather than by political scientists.

2. The increment list paradigm of public policy making and implementation is theoretical, effectual, prescriptive and nonnative.

Which of the staten1ts given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

39. Consider the following statements:

1. The Management Information System (MIS) provides decision making assistance for unstructured problems.

2. Decision Support System (DDS) is structured around analytic decision models on a specialized management database.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

40. Consider the following statements about open model of organization:

1. Means (or the proper way to do a job) are emphasized in the open model.

2. Non-routine tasks occur in unstable conditions in the open model.

3. The beginning of the open model can be traced to Saint-Simon and Auguste Comte.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) 1 and3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 2

Ans. (c)

41. Which one of the following is not included in “hygiene” factors in the Herzberg two-factor theory of motivation?

(a) Salary

(b) Working conditions

(c) Company’s policy

(d) Responsibility

Ans. (d)

42. Consider the following statements about managerial grid in the context of leadership theories:

1. It portrays a three-dimensional view of leadership style.

2. The grid shows dominating factors in a leader’s thinking in regard to getting results.

3. The grid does not show results produced.

4. The grid offers a framework for conceptualizing leadership style.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3

(b) Only 2, 3 and 4

(c) Only 1 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

43. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the rational comprehensive approach of decision-making in an organization?

(a) It cannot be simulated under laboratory conditions.

(b) Values to be realized are usually not set out distinctly.

(c) Individual decision-maker cannot take a comprehensive view of the whole problem.

(d) The need for speed compels decisions to be taken on the basis of incomplete data.

Ans. (d)

44. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Decision making in the public sector, in comparison to the private sector, involves

(a) higher levels of constraint

(b) more complexity

(c) less consultation

(d) more conflict

Ans. (c)

45. Contingency approach to leadership focuses on which

of the following?

I. Task requirements

2. Peers’ expectations

3. Employees’ expectations

4. Organizational policies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Only l, 2 and 3

(b) Only l, 2 and 4

(c) Only 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

46. Consider the following statements:

1. Motivation cannot be used as a tool to arrange job relationships in organizations.

2. Individuals make conscious decisions about, their behaviour in the organization.

3. Motivating factors are related to the job content and the rewards of work performance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

47. Which one of the following is not a component of expectancy model of motivation?

(a) Positive reinforcement

(b) Valence

(c) Performance-outcome equation

(d) Effort-performance equation

Ans. (a)

48. Match List -I (Person) with List- II (Major Area) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Person)                                          List- II (Major Area)

A. Robert Owen                                       1. Motivation Theories

B. Henry L. Gantt                                    2. Personnel Management

C. W. Clay Hammer                                3. Incentive Scheme for workers

D. Clayton Alderfer                                 4 Behaviour Modification Techniques

Code:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 1 3 4 2

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 1 4 3 2

Ans. (c)

49. The Wagner Act which proved to be the Magna Carta of labour was introduced in which country?

(a) United Stats1of America

(b) Great Britain

(c) France

(d) Japan

Ans. (a)

50. Assertion (A): Any legislative power of the Executive Independent of the Legislature is unimaginable in the United States of America.

Reason (R): The Doctrine of Separation of Powers underlies the American Constitution.

Ans. (a)


51. The motion of men implicit in the classical theory lends to generate a kind of employee psyche, which may be described as:

(a) Self-development oriented

(b) Aggressive

(c) Submissive

(d) Deficiency-oriented

Ans. (c)

52. Who described the phenomenon that each employee engaged in a staff function creates work for his colleagues:

(a) W. Wilson

(b) Parkinson

(c) D. Waldo

(d) Creep

Ans. (b)

53. Theory is the formulation of universal principles of organization:

(a) Classical Tory

(b) Human Relation Theory

(c) Bureaucratic Theory

(d) Scientific Management

Ans. (a)

54. “Grapevine” is a term used in relation to:

(a) Formal communication

(b) Informal communication

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) This term is not used in relation to communication

Ans. (b)

55. The authoritarian leadership style goes with:

(a) Theory X

(b) Theory Y

(c) Theory Z

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

56. Which of the following will tend to raise the market rate of interest in the long run?

(a) A fall in the marginal productivity of capital

(b) An increase in the amount of savings by individuals

(c) A rise in consumers demand and for present over future consumption

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

57. National income ordinary expressed means:

(a) Net national product at market price

(b) Groups national product as market price

(c) GNP at factor cost

(d) NNP at factor cost

Ans. (c)

58. If the short-run marginal cost of a typical firm in a competitive industry should fall continuously over a substantial range of increasing output the likely consequences is that:

(a) New firms must enter that industry

(b) The profit earned by that typical firm can be expected to fall

(c) The marginal cost of that firm will exceed its average cost through the output range in question

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

59. What happens to a company, If a shareholder dies?

(a) The company is dissolved

(b) The company is not dissolved

(c) The operations of the company will be temporarily suspended

(d) The company dissolved subject to the orders of the court

Ans. (b)

60. Delegation of authority makes the size of the organization:

(a) Smaller

(b) Larger

(c) Very Big

(d) Dose not affect size

Ans. (b)

61. Communication can be:

(a) Upward

(b) Downward

(c) Sideward

(d) All of the above

Ans. (b)

62. Taylor’s differential piece work plan provides that:

(a) All labourers should be assigned different amount of work

(b) All labourers should be put in different time-period

(c) Those who produce above standard should receive higher wages than those producing below standard

(d) Payment should be the same on a fixed standard

Ans. (a)

63. Marketing research data is gathered by:

(a) Observation

(b) In-depth interviews

(c) Controlled experiment

(d) All of the above

Ans. (c)

64. Taylor whose thoughts go under the name of scientific management made two assumptions:

1. The application of the methods of science to organizational problems leads to higher industrial efficiency.

2. The incentive of high wage will promote the mutuality of interest between workers

and managers which, in its turn, will lead to higher, productivity.

3. The staff members are personally free, observing only the impersonal duties of their offices.

4. There is a clear hierarchy of offices. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (a)

65. The three methods of science are:

(i) Observation and measurement

(ii) Experiment

(iii) Analysis and tabulation

(iv) Representation

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (i) and (iv)

Ans. (a)

66. The Delphi techniques uses:

(a) Mathematical models as input to the decision making process.

(b) A panel of experts making a series of independent decisions.

(c) A “top down” approach.

(d) None of the above.

Ans. (b)

67. Econometric models include techniques from:

(a) Economics

(b) Statistics

(c) Mathematics

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

68. Dorwin Cartwright and Alvin Zander identified the following two variables;

(1) Employee-oriented

(ii) Production-oriented

(iii) Goal-oriented

(iv) Group-oriented

The Correct Code is:

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iii)

(c) (iii) and (iv)

(d) (1) and (iv)

Ans. (c)

69. The democratic leadership style goes with:

(a) Theory X

(b) Theory Y

(c) Theory Z

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

70. Taylorism:

(i) Viewed man as an adjunct of man

(ii) Completely neglected the psychological aspects

(iii) Emphasized only a limited number of the physiological variables

(iv) Under-estimated the meaning of human motivation

Select the correct answer:

(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(b) (iii), (ii) and (iv)

(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(d) (1) and (iv)

Ans. (c)

71. “Focus on Social Environment” is related to the:

(a) Human Relations

(b) Unity of Direction

(c) Unity of Command

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

72. Assertion (A): Delegation of authority does not reduce the work load of a superior executive.

Reason (R): Authority can be delegated but responsibility cannot be delegated.

Codes:

(a) Both the statements are correct and second is a correct explanation of the first.

(b) Both the statements are correct but second is not a correct explanation of the first.

(c) First statement is correct but second is not.

(d) First statement is wrong but second is correct.

Ans. (d)

73. Assertion (A): The top management in an organization should be mainly concerned with very important and complex problems and not with routine day to day problems. Reason (R): This is started by the scalar principle of organization.

Codes:

(a) Both the statements are correct and second is a correct explanation of the first.

(b) Both the statements are correct but second is not a correct explanation of the first.

(c) First statement is correct but second is not.

(d) First statement is incorrect but second is correct.

Ans. (c)

74. Assertion (A): The span of management at upper levels of management is generally narrow while at lower level span is wide.

Reason (R): Tasks allocated to subordinates at lower levels of management are more specific and precise and thus making supervision easy and simple.

Codes:

(a) Both the statements are correct and second is a correct explanation of the first.

(b) Both the statements are correct but second is not a correct explanation of the first.

(c) First statements is correct but second is not.

(d) First statement is incorrect but second is correct.

Ans. (a)

75. Match the following:

List-I                                                                             List-II

A. To check the quality of work                                       1. Speed boss

B. To see that work is completed in time                         2. Inspector

C. To check absenteeism of workers                                3. Instruction and clerk.

D. To issue instructions regarding method of Work        4. Shop discipline

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 2 1 4

(b) 2 1 4 3

(c) 2 1 3 4

(d) 4 3 1 2

Ans. (b)

76. Effective supervision is an activity of:

(a) Organization function

(b) Staffing function

(c) Direction function

(d) Control function

Ans. (c)

77. it is the value assigned to the expected benefits for desirable national gains:

(a) Cost price

(b) Shadow price

(c) Real price

(d) Opportunity cost

Ans. (b)

78. Effective leadership behaviour is a result of following variable:

(a) Structure

(b) Consideration

(c) Environment

(d) All of these

Ans. (d)

79. Structure variable is synonymous with:

(a) Task

(b) Relations

(b) Style

(d) Attitude

Ans. (a)

80. Consideration is synonymous with:

(a) Task

(b) Relations

(c) Style

(d) Attitude

Ans. (b)

81. Match the following:

List-I List-II

A. Fayol                                              1. Economy and Society

B. Taylor                                             2. General and Industrial Administration

C. Weber                                             3. Principles of Organization

D. Mooney and Reilley                       4. Shop Management

Select the correct code:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 4 1 3

(c) 1 3 2 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

Ans. (b)

82. The main focus of the Human Relations Theory is on:

(a) Formal organization

(b) Informal organization

(c) Individual

(d) Participatory decision making

Ans. (c)

83. Cross elasticity of complementary goods is:

(a) Negative

(b) Zero

(c) High

(d) Infinite

Ans. (a)

84. Managerial Grid suggests the following as the best leader-behaviour:

(a) Low structure and low consideration

(b) High concern both for production and people

(c) Low concern both for production and people

(d) High structure and high consideration

Ans. (b)

85. Henri Fayol supports the:

(a) Humanistic approach

(b) Mechanistic approach

(c) Organic approach

(d) Scientific approach

Ans. (b)

86. A statistical measure based upon the entire population is called parameter while measure based upon a sample is known as:

(a) Sample parameter

(b) Inference

(c) Statistic

(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

87. Who is regarded as the Father of Scientific Social Surveys?

(a) Darwin

(b) Best

(c) Marx

(d) Angels

Ans. (b)

88. The process not needed in experimental research is:

(a) Observation

(b) Controlling

(c) Manipulation and replication

(d) Reference collection

Ans. (d)

89. Generalized conclusion on the basis of a sample is technically known as

(a) Statistical inference of external validity of the research

(b) Data analysis and interpretation

(c) Parameter inference

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

90. A researcher divides his population into certain groups and fixed the size of the sample from each group. It is called:

(a) Stratified sample

(b) Quota sample

(c) Cluster sample

(d) All of the above

Ans. (b)

91. All causes non-sampling errors except:

(a) Faculty tool of measurement

(b) Inadequate sample

(c) Non-response

(d) Defect in data collection

Ans. (b)

92. Managerial decision-making refers to:

(a) Programmed decisions

(b) Unprogrammed decisions

(c) Information system

(d) Operation research

Ans. (b)

93. Fixed asset file management procedures are not. required for:

(a) Carrying out fixed asset physical inventory taking

(b) Processing fixed asset purchase

(c) Estimating e.g. fire insurance requirements

(d) All of the above

Ans. (c)

94. If the reference for arbitration is for even number of arbitrators, they have;

(a) Power to increase, the number

(b) Power to appoint an umpire

(c) Power to decrease the number

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

95. Public sector consists of those enterprises in which the state owns:

(a) 50% of the capital

(b) 66% of the capital

(c) 5% of the capital

(d) 100% of the capital

Ans. (d)

96. F. W. Taylor called “the Military type of foreman” to:

(a) Span of control

(b) Unity of command

(c) Department

(d) Delegated legislature

Ans. (b)

97. Scientific management addresses itself to the problems of:

(a) Middle tier of management

(b) Top management

(c) Lower tier of organization

(d) None of the above

Ans. (c)

98. The managers did not like the scientific management theory because:

(a) They felt that the workers were given undue importance in the theory

(b) It reduced managerial remuneration

(c) They felt that it had the effect of giving away more wages to the workers

(d) They felt that the rigid scientific methods look away their managerial freedom in decision-making

Ans. (d)

99. Who is known as father of scientific management?

(a) Henry Fayol

(b) Herbert Spencer

(c) Hertzberg

(d) F. W. Taylor

Ans. (d)

100. The idea that all the units of an organization should be integrated under the authority of one- head had been interpreted as:

(a) Span of control

(b) Delegated legislation

(c) Unity of command

(d) Hierarchical system

Ans. (c)

101. Which pattern reflects a pure executive form of management?

(a) Functional

(b) Line

(c) Line and Staff

(d) Committee

Ans. (a)

102. Match the following:

A. Increasing cost industry            1. Horizontal long run supply curve

B. Decreasing cost industry          2. Positively sloped long run supply curve

C. Constant cost                            3. Negatively sloped long run supply curve industry

Codes:

A B C

(a) 1 2 3

(b) 3 2 1

(c) 2 3 1

(d) 2 1 3

Ans. (c)

103. The management of personnel is also called:

(a) Staffing

(b) Controlling

(c) Co-coordinating

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

104. Assertion (A): High capital gearing leads to greater speculation. .

Reason (R): Proportion of equity share capital in relation to the total capital comprising the other securities is small leading to capitalization being highly geared.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (d)

105. Techniques of managerial control are useful in:

(a) Selection of plant location

(b) Identifying appropriate strategy

(c) Profit planning

(d) Conducting shareho1der’s meetings

Ans. (c)

106. Opportunity costs are also known as:

(a) Spillover costs

(b) Money-costs

(c) Alternative costs

(d) External costs

Ans. (d)

107. Assertion (A): The focus of scientific management was narrow.

Reason (R): It concentrated on the work done at the lowest level.

Codes:

(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (a)

108. The Human Relations Theory does not lay emphasis on:

A. Principles

B. People

C. Human motivations

D. Informal group function

Select the answer from answer from the codes given below:

(a) A

(b) A and B.

(c) A, B and C

(d) A, B, C and D

Ans. (a)

109. What is consumer market?

(a) Buyer’s

(b) Seller’s

(b) Distributors

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

110. There will be only one regression line in case of two variables if:

(a) r = 0

(b) r = ± l

(c) r = 0.5

(d) None of them

Ans. (b)

111. Match the following:

A. Various combinations of two commodities    1. Indifference map

that a consumer can purchase

B. Various combinations of two commodities    2. Indifference curve

that give consumer equal satisfaction

C. A set of indifference curves                            3. Budget Line

D. Point of agency of a budget line and an         4. Consumer’s equilibrium

indifference curve

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 4 3 2 1

(c) 2 3 4 1

(d) 3 2 1 4

Ans. (d)

112. The area which lies under the demand curve for a given good measures:

(a) Marginal utility

(b) Total utility

(c) Disutility

(d) Marginal cost of production

Ans. (b)

113. The prime cost may be considered as:

(a) Variable cost

(b) Direct cost

(b) Sunk cost

(d) Fixed cost

Ans. (d)

114. The optimum is the one which is produced:

(a) By the optimum firm

(b) At the maximum average cost

(c) At the minimum average cost

(d) At zero marginal cost

Ans. (c)

115. Product mix consist:

(a) 2 P

(b) 6 P

(c) 4 P

(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

116. Gresham’s law is related to:

(a) Consumption and Demand

(b) Supply and Demand

(c) Circulation of Money

(d) Deficit Financing

Ans. (c)

117. SDR is the currency of IMF which is in the form of:

(a) Paper currency

(b) Gold

(c) Silver and gold both

(d) Book-keeping entry only

Ans. (d)

118. Assertion (A): The investors in the capital market have been showing a decisive shift in favour of fixed income instruments.

Reason (R): The debt instruments have active secondary market.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d A is false but R is true.

Ans. (c)

119. The first stock exchange was set up in India in:

(a) Calcutta

(b) Bombay

(c) Delhi

(d) Madras

Ans. (b)

120. Under perfect competition, a firm will be in equilibrium when its AC is:

(a) At a maximum

(b) At a minimum

(c) Covering only prime costs of production

(d) Covering wages and salaries only

Ans. (b)

121. The greatest weakness of the informal organizations:

(a) Its utter instability

(b) Its behaviour can be predicted

(c) It does not change

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

122. Which of the following are devices to bring about co-ordination?

A. Cabinet Committees

B. Union Government

C. Zonal Councils

D. National Development Council

(a) A and B only

(b) B only

(c) A, B, and D only

(d) A, B, C, and D

Ans. (d)

123. TQM’S major emphasis is on:

(a) Product Quality

(b) Company Profitability

(c) Customer Delight

(d) Employees Training

Ans. (a)

124. The theory which deals with the comparative statistics and positive equilibrium is called:

(a) Macro Economics

(b) Modern Economics

(c) Micro Economics

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

125. An informal organization is:

A. Not written and manualised

B. Not portrayed in organizational charts

C. A set of work relationship that grow out of the mutual interactions of persons working together over a period of time

D. Customary, not enacted

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) A only

(b) A and B only

(c) A, B and C only

(d A, B, C and D

Ans. (d)

126. When the greater the elasticity of supply the change in the new equilibrium price will:

(a) Be higher

(b) Be higher than previous price

(c) Be lower

(d) Be lower than previous price

Ans. (c)

127. In the short run, the monopolist:

(a) Incurs a loss

(b) Breaks down

(c) Makes a profit

(d) Any of the above

Ans. (d)

128. Match the following:

A. Responsiveness of demand to change in price     1. Income elasticity of demand

B. Responsiveness of demand to change in tastes     2. Price elasticity of demand

C. Responsiveness of demand to change in income  3. Cross elasticity of demand

D. Responsiveness of demand to change in price     4. Taste elasticity of demand

of related goods

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 3 1 2

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (d)

129. A stable equilibrium position is one in which:

(a) There are never any departures from the equilibrium position

(b) There are only two forces influencing equilibrium

(c) Any departure from the equilibrium position calls into play forces which end to restore that position

(d) There are endless oscillations

Ans. (c)

130. We can separate the income effect from the substitution effect of the price fall of reducing the consumers:

(a) Money income sufficiently to keep his real income constant

(b) Money income to make his real income higher

(c) Money income to make his real income lower

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

131. The Law of Diminishing Returns is applied to all fields of production was stated by

(a) Walras

(b) A. C. Pigou

(c) Alfred Marshall

(d) David Ricardo

Ans. (a)

132. Assertion (A): A manager dealing with trained subordinates can afford to operate on a wide span.

Reason (R): Trained subordinates carry on their functions without very frequent reference to the superior.

Codes:

(a.) A and R are true and R explains A.

(b) A and R are true but R does not explain A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (a)

133. ‘Pocus on social environment” is related to the:

(a) Human Relations

(b) Unity of direction

(c) Unity of command

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

134. Which of the following are associated with the Scientific Management Movement?

1. Functional-Foremanship

2. Centralization

3. Time and motion study

4. Unity of command

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) l and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) l, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3, and 4

Ans. (a)

135. Commercial banks are now permitted to I undertake to the business of:

(a) Equipment leasing

(b) Mutual funds

(c) Factoring

(d) All of these

Ans. (d)

136. Marketing research data is gathered by:

(a) Observation

(b) In-depth interviews

(c) Controlled experiment

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

137. Who authored book “Policy and Management”?

(a) Gladden

(b) Weber

(c) Dimock

(d) Appleby

Ans. (d)

138. If the agreement is silent, an arbitration reference is to appoint:

(a) Sole arbitrator

(b) Two or more arbitrators

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None of the above

Ans. (a)

139. Structure variable is synonymous with::

(a) Task

(b) Relations

(c) Styles

(d) Attitude

Ans. (a)

140. The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, does not at all apply to:

(a) State Bank of India and its subsidiaries

(b) Nationalized Banks

(c) Foreign Banks having their offices in India

(d) Primary agricultural credit societies and co-operative and mortgagee banks

Ans. (d)

141. Which of the following is most likely to cause an immediate increase in the stage of the working population?

(a) A rise in the average size of families

(b) An increase in the birth rate

(c) A fall in the death rate of the over 60 years old

(d) More favourable tax treatment of the earnings, married women

Ans. (d)

142. You are the manager of a firm.

Which of the following activities do you initiate first?

(a) Planning

(b) Organizing

(c) Staffing

(d) Directing

Ans. (a)

143. The Industrial Finance Corporation, of India came into existence in

(a) July, 1948

(b) August, 1968

(c) September, 1951

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

144. A court has power to:

(a) Modify the award of an arbitrator with his consent

(b) Modify the award subject to the consent of the parties

(c) Nullify the arbitration agreement

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

145. The three objectives of scientific management are:

1. Standardization of working conditions

2. Standardization of work methods

3. Planning of large daily tasks

4. Maximization of employment

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) l, 2 and 4

(b) l, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Ans. (c)

146. Scientific management addressed itself to the problems of:

(a) Bottom part of organization

(b) Top management

(c) Middle tier of management

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

147. Which of the following is not a typically used procedure to reduce the total number of employees?

(a) Lay off

(b) Terminations

(c) Downturns

(d) Early retirement in inducements

Ans. (d)

148. You require capital for purchase of fixed assets. What is this capital called :

(a) Floating capital

(b) Reserve capital

(c) Circulating capital

(d) Fixed capital

Ans. (a)

149. Who is the final authority for deciding the design, form and material of bank notes?

(a) Central Government

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(c) Indian Bank’s Association

(d) Note Issuing Authority of India

Ans. (c)

150. Who is author of ‘ The Function of the Executive’?

(a) Chester Bernard

(b) Cart Rogers

(c) A. H. Maslow

(d) E. Mayo

Ans. (a)
151. OPEC is an example of the type of producer’s

organization known as a:

(a) Marketing Board

(b) Producer’s Cooperative

(c) Trust

(d) Cartel

Ans. (d)

152. TQM’s major emphasis is on

(a) Product quality

(b) Company profitability

(c) Customer delight

(d) Employee training

Ans. (a)

153. Assertion (A): Effective motivation is moderated by organizational complexity and conflicts.

Reason (R): An Individual’s motives may be complex and conflicting.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (d)

154. Match the following:

List-I                                             List-II

A Classical                               1. Fact-orientation

B Human Relations                  2. Environment

C Behavioural                          3. Structure

D Systems                                4. Informal organization

5. Incentives to work

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 1 3

(b) 1 4 3 2

(c) 3 2 4 5

(d) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (d)

155. External environment of business is:

(a) Physical

(b) Demographic

(c) Economic

(d) All of these

Ans. (d)

156. ‘Co-ordination’ in an organization means:

1. Complete control of the activities of the employees.

2. To structure harmony among different units of the organization.

3. Removal of conflict and overlapping in the organization.

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) l and 3

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (c)

157. Regression coefficient is independent change of:

(a) Origin but not to scale

(b) Both origin and scale

(c) Scale but not of origin

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

158. Assertion (A): E-commerce is an emerging field, which cannot be ignored.

Reason (R): The legal framework relating to E-commerce is yet to be crystallized.

Codes:

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (b)

159. Which of these is marketing research method?

(a) Observation

(b) Questionnaire

(c) Interview

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

160. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always posses the minimum gold stock of worth:

(a) Rs. 85 crores

(b) Rs. 115 crores

(c) Rs. 200 crores

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

161. ISO-quants are also known as:

(a) Equal revenue curves.

(b) Equal cost curves

(c) Equal product curves

(d) Indifference curves

Ans. (c)

162. Match the following:

List-I                                 List-II

(a) Cardinal approach              1. Margin Utility

(b) Ordinal approach               2. Alfred Marshall

(c) Hicks-Allen approach        3. J. R Hicks

(d) Consumer’s surplus           4. Indifference curve

5. Revealed preference theory

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 5 4 2

(c) 1 3 4 2

(d) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (b)

163. The scientific management stressed upon:

1. Rationality

2. Specialization

3. Technical competence

4. Predictability

Select the Correct Code:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (d)

164. One who does too mu1i work is called:

(a) A rate buster

(b) A chiseller

(c) A squealer

(d) None pf the above

Ans. (a)

165. Which of the following is not an essential feature of social environment?

(a) Competitiveness

(b) Respect for the individual

(c) Better quality of life

(d) Bailment

Ans. (d)

166. Marketing information system help to

(a) Sales Manager

(b) Purchase Manager

(c) Operational Manager

(d) Marketing Manager

Ans. (d)

167. Consider the following:

I Measurement

II. Projection

III. Selection

IV. Observation

V. Comparison

VI. Decision making

The correct sequence of the above ingredients of management by exception is:

(a) I, II, III, IV, V, VI

(b) I, II, III, V, IV, VI

(c) I, H, III, VI, IV, V

(d) I, II, III, IV, VI, V

Ans. (a)

168. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Value of any security                1. The real value of any security is determined by the

prior rights to the return of income.

B. Debenture                                 2. It possesses maximum safety and normally offers

regular and fixed income.

C. Preference Share                      3. It offers reasonable safety as well as regular and

fixed income by way of dividend.

D. Equity Shares                           4. It invites speculative tendency and the investors.

There is risk of loss in such a share.

Select the correct answer using the codes using the codes given below:

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 1 3 4

(c) 1 2 4 3

(d) 2 1 4 3

Ans. (a)

169. Normal profits are considered as:

(a) Explicit Costs

(b) Implicit Costs

(c) Social Costs

(d) Private Costs

Ans. (b)

170. Consider the following statements:

1. Quartile deviation is more instructive range as it discards the dispersion of extreme items.

2. Coefficient of quartile deviation cannot be used to compare the degree.

3. There are 10 deciles for a series.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 alone

(c) 3 alone

(d) 1 alone

Ans. (c)

171. Three necessary and sufficient conditions that must be satisfied if traits should be unique determinants of the Leadership Index are —

1. The trait quality should follow a descending order as one traverses from the highest to the lowest levels.

2. There must be a high correlation between the Level of traits and the level of success

3. The achievement trait curve should be convex to the trait axis as one travels from the low to the high trait terminals.

The above conditions have been suggested by:

(a) F. W. Taylor

(b) Elton Mayo

(c) Edin E. Ghiselli

(d) Dorwin Cartwright

Ans. (c)

172. Michigan Leadership studies are based on the following approach to the study of leadership:

(a) Trait approach

(b) Attitude criterion

(c) Behaviour approach

(d) Situational approach

Ans. (b)

173. Choose the correct facts of the following?

A. Unity of command in no case seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and auxiliary agencies.

B. What we are having today in practice, there is no unity of command, not even duality of command, but multiplicity of command.

C. The unity of command has been seriously affected by the increasing number and growing influence of staff and auxiliary agencies.

(a) A only

(b) A and B only

(c) B and C only

(d) A, B and C

Ans. (c)

174. Find out correct answer:

(a) Heart of co-ordination is unity of actions.

(b) Co-ordination is the basic responsibility of management.

(c) Co-ordination is not a distinct function but the very essence of management.

(d) All of the above

Ans. (d)

175. The definition that Economics is concerned with an enquiry into the nature and causes of wealth of nations is given by

(a) Karl Marx

(b) Adam Smith

(c) A. E. Cairns

(d) None of these

Ans. (b)

176. A long run analysis of production is called:

(a) Economies of scale

(b) Law of variable proportion

(c) Law of increasing returns

(d) Law of returns to scale

Ans. (d)

177. Which of the following persons is engaged in “secondary production”?

1. A brick layer

2. An automobile assembly-line worker

3. An accountant

4. A cinema projectionist

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (b)

178. Rectangular hyperbola is the shape of:

(a) TFC

(b) AFC

(c) FC

(d) MC

Ans. (b)

179. Assertion (A): A tenet of scientific management is co-operation and harmony between workers and managers.

Reason (R): Taylor believed in participative management.

In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?

Codes:

(a) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Ans. (c)

180. Which of the following are the Mechanisms of the Scientific Management?

1. Functional Foremanship

2. One best way of doing a task

3. Differential Piece Rate Plan

4. Scientific Selection of workman

5. Time and Motion study

(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(c) 4, 3 and 5

(d) 2 and 4

Ans. (c)

181. Who described the classical approach as the engineering approach?

(a) Gullick

(b) Fayol

(c) Urwick

(d) Mooney

Ans. (c)

182. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I                                                                     List-II

A. A store clerk tells the top executive when to buy            1. Leadership by personality

a commodity.

B. A youth rushing to save life and property of a house      2. Leadership by position

on fire commands neighbours to collect water.

C. A newly elected secretary advises members about          3. Leadership by function

their duties.

D. A leader attempts to bend his followers to his will         4. Leadership by situation

in most kind of work.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 2 4 3 1

(c) 3 4 2 1

(d) 3 2 4 1

Ans. (c)

183. Arrange the Maslow’s Need descending order:

1. Social

2. Self-Actualization

3. Physiological

4. Ego

5. Security

(a) 3, 5 1, 4, 2

(b) 3, 5, 1, 2, 4

(c) 2, 4, 1, 3, 5

(d) 2, 4, 1, 5, 3

Ans. (d)

184. Which of the following, according to Hertzberg, are not the motivators?

1. Responsibility

2. Recognition

3. Interpersonal relations

4. Work itself

5. Working condition

(a) l, 2 and 4

(b) l, 2, and 3

(c) 3 and 5

(d) 2, 4 and 5

Ans. (c)

185. The traditional theory of motivation is the theory of:

(a) Path-goal

(b) Participation

(c) Motivation-hygiene

(d) Fear and punishment

Ans. (d)

186. The sources of recruitment are:

(a) Internal

(b) External

(c) Internal as well as external

(d) None of the above

Ans. (b)

187. The Human Relations Theory rejects:

(a) Formal institutionalization

(b) Informal functioning

(c) Human motivation

(d) People

Ans. (d)

188. The terms speed boss, rout clerks etc., are used in relation to:

(a) Line organization

(b) Line and staff organization

(c) Functional organization

(d) None of the above

Ans. (d)

189. Paid-up value is payable on a life insurance policy:

(a) on the maturity of the policy

(b) when the policy lapses

(c) when the policy is surrendered

(d) on maturity or death which ever is earlier

Ans. (d)

190. FICCI was formed in the year:

(a) 1920

(b) 1925

(c) 1926

(d) 1951

Ans. (c)

191. Which among the following is the most popular approach for accomplishing the

results?

(a) Management by exception

(b) Reward system

(c) Management by objectives

(d) Mentor system

Ans. (c)

192. Techniques of managerial control are useful in:

(a) Selection of plant location

(b) Identifying appropriate technology

(c) Profit planning

(d) Conducting shareholders’ meetings

Ans. (c)

193. Facility location decisions:

(a) Do not affect other capacity decisions

(b) Are intermediate range capacity decisions

(c) Are not affected by other existing capacities

(d) All of the above statements are untrue

Ans. (d)

194. Ship building and construction of dams and bridges are typical examples of:

(a) Fixed position layout

(b) Functional layout

(c) Product layout

(d) Project type layout

Ans. (a)

195. If unit item cost = Rs. 10, monthly carrying charge = 3%, monthly demand = 100 units and ordering cost = Rs.20 per order, the EOQ is:

(a) 11.45

(b) 400

(c) 115.4

(d) 33.3

Ans. (c)

196. PERT/CPM network analysis can be used for:

(a) Projection appraisal

(b) Project Implementation

(c) Project monitoring and control

(d) All of the above

Ans. (a)

197 Where ‘r’ is equal to zero the regression lines cut each other making an angle of:

(a) 450?

(b) 60?

(c) 90?

(d) None of these

Ans. (d)

198. In a moderately asymmetrical distribution

(a) A. M > G.M > H.M

(b) A.M < G.M < H.M.

(c) A.M < G.M > H.M.

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

199. National Housing is a controlled enterprise of:

(a) NABARD

(b) UTI

(c) RBI

(d) LIC of India

Ans. (c)

200. Corporate tax is imposed by:

(a) State Government

(b) Local Government

(c) Central Government

(d) Both (a) and (c)

Ans. (c)
201. Data collection terminals gather data for use by the:
(a) Inventory subsystem
(b) Cost subsystem
(c) Production subsystem
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

202. Average inventory level is educed by:
(a) Decreasing the vender lead time
(b) Increasing the usage rate
(c) Decreasing the order quantity
(d) Lowering the reorder point
Ans. (c)

203. Below are given four different theories:
(1) Trait approach
(ii) Attitude criterion
(iii) Behaviour approach
(iv) Situational approach
These are identified with:
(a) Administrative behaviour
(b) Organizational behaviour
(c) Leadership index
(d) Administrative approaches
Ans. (c)

204. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:
(a) Finance function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (c)

205. Focus on Social Environment is related to:
(a) Unity of Command
(b) Human Relations
(c) Unity of Direction
(d) Delegation
Ans. (b)

206. Section 16 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 prohibits a person:
(a) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is an undischarged insolvent.
(b) To be appointed as director of banking company if he is not of sound financial position.
(c) To be appointed as director of more than one banking company.
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

207. The funds management subsystem attempts to:
(a) Increase cash input
(b) Decrease cash output
(c) Balance cash inflow with outflow
(d) All of the above
Ans. (c)

208. The democratic leadership style goes with:
(a) Theory X
(b) Theory Y
(c) Theory Z
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

209. This type of information overlay indicates the key people who can accomplish something because they know the ropes.
(a) The decision overlay
(b) The power overlay
(c) The communication overlay
(d) The functional overlay
Ans. (b)

210. Delegation of authority results in:
(a) Avoiding responsibility
(b) Centralization of powers at top level
(c) Costliness of decision
(d) Enabling the managers to distribute their work load
Ans. (d)

211. Taylorism:
1. Viewed man as an adjunct of man.
2. Underestimated the meaning of human motivation.
3. Emphasized only a limited number of physiological variables.
4. Completely neglected the psychological aspects.
Select the correct code from the following:
(a) (l)+(2)
(b) (1)+(2)+(3)
(c) (l)+(3)+(4)
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

212. Which of the following markets is associated with short term funds?
(a) Money market
(b) Capital market
(c) Stock market
(d) Chamber of commerce
Ans. (c)

213. In India, the system of decimal coinage introduced on:
(a) 15th August 1947
(b) 26th January 1950
(c) 1st April 1957
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

214. The most structured marketing problems are likely to be those dealing with:
(a) Product
(b) Promotion
(c) Place
(d) Price
Ans. (b)

215. The manager of inventory would most likely be found in the:
(a) Finance, function
(b) Marketing function
(c) Manufacturing function
(d) Information system function
Ans. (d)

216. One who does too much work is called
(a) A squealer
(b) A rate buster
(b) A chiseller
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

217. Companies are required to hold a meeting every year. What is the meeting called?
(a) Extra ordinary meeting
(b) Statutory meeting
(c) Committee meeting .
(d) Annual general meeting
Ans. (a)

218. The management of a company is vested in the hands of:
(a) Shareholders
(b) Directors
(c) Board of directors elected by shareholders
(d) Creditors
Ans. (c)

219. A popular technique for forecasting is:
(a) Correlation analysis
(b) Regression analysis
(c) Linear programming
(d) Month Carlo
Ans. (b)

220. Which of the following is not a component of the new issue market?
(a) Stock exchange
(b) Unit Trust of India
(c) Financial Institution like IFC, IDBI
(d) LIC
Ans. (d)

221. Bank deposits are money when they are:
(a) Lying with Bank
(b) In circulation
(c) Kept with government
(d) Kept with R.B.I.
Ans. (b)

222. Money is:
(a) Consumer goods
(b) Capital goods
(c) Producer goods
(d) Neither of them
Ans. (d)

223. “Papers on the Science of Administration” is written by:
(a) L. Urwick
(b) Gullick
(c) Both combined
(d) M. P. Follett
Ans. (c)

224. Find the correct answer regarding classical theory of organizations?
(i) It throws focus on human beings as such
(ii) It throws focus not on human beings as such but on the role
(iii) It is normally the dominant set of work relationship.
(iv) All of the above
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (ii) and (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (iv) only
Ans. (b)

225. Full delegation is called:
(a) Alter-ego
(b) Shelter-ego
(c) Ego
(d) None of the above
Ans. (d)

226. The Modern Theory is also called the:
(a) System Analysis of Organizations
(b) Human Relations Theory
(b) Mechanistic Theory
(d) Structural Theory
Ans. (a)

227. Sales invoicing is a:
(a) Pre-sales activity
(b) Job of finance department
(c) Post-sales activity
(d) All of the above.
Ans. (a)

228. Managerial decision-making refers to:
(a) Programmed decisions
(b) Unprogrammed decisions
(c) Information system
(d) Operation system
Ans. (b)

229. Which of the following statement is true?
(a) Authority can not be delegated, but responsibility can be delegated
(b) Both authority and responsibility can be delegated
(c) Authority ca only be delegated
(d) Responsibility can only be delegated
Ans. (a)

230. Dynamic factors in trade theory refer to change in:
(a) Factor endowments
(b) Technology
(c) Tastes
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

231. The classical theory of organizations manifest following certain features which are:
(i) Impersonality
(ii) Division of work
(iii) Hierarchy
(iv) Efficiency
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (iii) and (iv) only
(c) (i), iii and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Ans. (d)

232. The line agency should not have:
(a) Operating unit
(b) Major substantial purpose
(c) Advisory and co-coordinating functions
(d) Independent staff
Ans. (b)

233. The difference between the line and staff units is:
(a) Marginal
(b) Qualitative
(c) Quantitative
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

234. Oral communication in Organisations are:
(a) Formal communication
(b) Information communication
(c) Discretionary communication
(d) All of the above
Ans. (b)

235. Structure variable is synonymous with:
(a) Task
(b) Relation
(c) Style
(d) Attitude
Ans. (a)

236. Effective supervision is an activity of:
(a) Organization function
(b) Staffing function
(c) Direction function
(d) Control function
Ans. (c)

237. Accent of human relation theory is:
(a) Action-Oriented
(b) Hierarchy-Oriented
(c) Organization-Oriented
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)

238. Marketing research does not normally:
(a) Gather environmental information
(b) Provide a continuous source of information
(c) Relate to all aspects of. marketing operations
(d) Describe the current situation
Ans. (b)

239. A periodic report can be used to:
(a) Identify the problem
(b) Evaluate solution
(c) Identify solution
(d) Select solution
Ans. (a)

240. Corporate modeling software can be used for:
(a) Cash planning
(b) Operational budding
(c) Capital budgeting
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

241. The overall goal of Scientific Management is:
(a) Maximization of productivity
(b) Maximization of employment
(c) Higher industrial efficiency
(d) Greater profit to producers
Ans. (c)

242. Statutory meeting is needed for:
(a) All companies
(b) For a private company
(c) For a public company only
(d) For a statutory company only
Ans. (c)

243. Central Monetary Authority of the country is:
(a) Union Finance Ministry
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Central Bank of Direct Taxes
Ans. (b)

244. How many nationalized banks are there in our country?
(a) Nineteen
(b) Twenty two
(c) Fourteen
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)

245. It is only implies the transfer of function and not of authority. The reference is to:
(a) Decentralization
(b) Co-ordination
(c) Delegation
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

246. The transfer of functions as well as authority is known as:
(a) Delegation
(b) Devolution
(c) Decentralization
(d) Promotion
Ans. (c)

247. Two-factor theory is related to:
(a) Leadership
(b) Motivation
(c) Communication
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)

248. The ERG Theory is related to:
(a) Hertzberg
(b) Maslow
(c) Adam
(d) Alderfer
Ans. (d)

249. For McGregor, leadership condition that provides for security is/are:
(a) Knowledge
(b) Consistent discipline
(c) Atmosphere of approval
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

250. Economic analysis in the content of equity stock valuation is concerned with:
(a) Study of fiscal policies
(b) Study of monsoons
(c) Study of economic policies of the government
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

Tuesday, November 30, 2010

APSCSC ASSISTANTS GRADE I and II EXAM QUESTIONS

LEGAL QUESTIONS:

Q.1. ‘Acquisition of res nullius’ is:
(a) original acquisition of ownership
(b) derivative acquisition of ownership
(c) mere custody of the thing
(d) accessory acquisition of ownership
Ans. (a)
Q.2. The cancellation of the driving license of a person is an example of:
(a) expiratory theory
(b) preventive theory
(c) reformative theory
(d) deterrent theory
Ans. (b)
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.3. Assertion (A): For legal duty, sanction is an essential element attached for its breach.
Reason (R): Presence of sanction is the test of legal duty.
Ans. (a)
Q.4. Which one of the following statements is related to Salmond ?
(a) Jurisprudence is lawyer’s perspective
(b) Jurisprudence is formal science of positive law
(c) Jurisprudence is science of the first principle of civil law
(d) Jurisprudence is the scientific synthesis of’ all principles of law
Ans. (c)
Q.5. According to Austin, sanction is:
(a) the permission to do an act
(b) the evil consequence of disobeying the command of the sovereign
(c) a right granted by law
(d) a power to inflict punishment
Ans. (b)
Q.6. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (Definitions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Jurists) (Definitions)
A. Ulpian                                              1.Lawyer’s    extra version
B. Julius Stone                                      2. Science of just and unjust.
C. Patterson                                           3.Philosophy of positive law
D. Austin                                               4. Social Science
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans. (b)
Q.7. Consider the following statements:
(a) Laws are commands.
(b) The analysis of legal concept is distinct from sociological and historical inquiries.
(c) Decisions can be deducted logically with recourse to morality
(d) The law as it is has to be kept separate from the law and ought to be.
Which of the statements given above are related to positivism?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (a)
Q.8. Which one of the following statements is not related is the Natural Law School?
(a) Evaluation of any part of the law must be done in terms of its effects
(b) There is a connection between means and ends
(c) Justice originates in pure practical reason
(d) Law consists of means of achieving ends
Ans. (a)
Q.9. Ratio decidendi of a case is which one of the following?
(a) The order of the court in the case
(b) The final decree passed by the Court
(c) The underlying principle or legal reasons on which the result of the case depends
(d) The part of the judgment which has persuasive effect
Ans. (c)
Q.10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                       List-II
A. Savigny                                   1.Evolutionary concept of history
B. Hegel                                       2.Evolution . with laissez-fair
C. Herbert Spenser                       3.Status to contract
D. Henry Maine                           4.Reflection of spirit of people in legal system
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (d)
Q.11. Consider the following statements:
1. Law is not made, but is already available in the soul of human beings
2. The nature of legal system is a reflection of spirit of the people
3. Law grows with the growth and strength with the strength of the people
4. Customary law dies when law is codified
Which of the statements given above are related to the “Volksgeist” theory propagated by Savigny?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l, 3 and 4
(d) l and 4
Ans. (b)
Q.12. Match List (Statement) with List-II (Author) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                                     List-II
(Statement)                                                                              (Author)
A. Sociological School is ‘metajuristic’                                1.Julius Stone
B. Formal analysis of the structure of English law                2.Bentham
C. Jurisprudence is lawyer’s   extra version                           3.Austin
D. Distinguishes between expositional and censorial law     4.Kelsen
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 1 3  4 2
(c) 4 3  1 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans.(c)
Q.13. Consider the following statements:
1. The outstanding fact of the society is the interdependence of men
2. The doctrine of sovereignty has become meaningless
3. Laws should be treated from the angle of purpose
4; The only right which any man can possess is the right always to do his duty
Which of the statements given above can be subscribed to Duguit?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (d)
Q.14. Which one of the following rights is a right in re-propia.?
(a) Easement
(b) License
(c) Lessee’s right
(d) Ownership
Ans.(d)
Q.15. Legislation grows out of theory but customary law grows of practice. The existence of legislation is essential which one of the following?
(a) de facto
(b) de jure
(c) Both de facto and de jure
(d) Dependent on recognition
Ans. (b)
Q.16. Match List-I (Jurists) with List-Il (Theory) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Jurists)                                                          (Theory)
A. Ihering                                                      1. Social solidarity
B. Bentham                                                   2. Social engineering
C. Roscoe Pound                                           3. Social control
D. Duguit                                                      4. Pleasure pain
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (c)
Ans. (c)
Q.17. For a valid custom, there are certain prerequisites.
Which one out of the following conditions of a valid custom is not correct?
(a) Custom must be continuous
(b) Custom must be reasonable
(c) Custom might be contrary to statutory law
(d) Custom must not be immoral
Ans. (c)
Q.18. Consider the following statements:
1. Human being alone can be subjects of jural relations.
2. The members of a corporation and the beneficiaries of a foundation are the only ‘person’.
3. Juristic persons are treated as if they are human beings.
4. The dignity of being a juristic person has to be conceded by the state.
Which of the statements given above is/are related to
the purpose theory?
(a) 4 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 only
Ans. (d)
Q.19. A tenant went to jail for two years leaving his mistress in occupation. The mistress also left after sometime. The tenant claimed that he remained in possession.
Consider the following statements:
1. The tenant remained in possession as he had left his mistress in occupation.
2. The tenant did not remain in possession as he has gone to jail for two years.
3. The tenant was being unfair and as such he did not remain in possession.
4. The tenant remained in possession as he has been fair
Which one of statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 4 only
Ans. (c)
Q.20. X allows Y to put his goods in a room of X’s house. Y sends his agent Z to put the goods in the room. Z puts the goods in the room, locks it up and keeps the key with him. Who is in possession of the room?
(a) X
(b) Y
(c)  Z
(d) Both X and Z
Ans. (b)
Q.21. Which of the following is an element of  Ihering theory of possession?
(a) Overemphasis on the element of animus
(b) Equal emphasis on the elements of animus and corpus
(c) Owner like appearance in relation to a thing
(d) Immediate physical power to exclude any foreign agency.
Ans. (c)
Q.22. Ownership without possession can be termed as which
one of the following?
(a) No ownership
(b) Quasi ownership
(c) Incomplete ownership
(d) No-corporeal ownership
Ans. (d)
Q.23. Which one out of the following statements is not correct with reference to Savigny’s theory of Volksgeist?
(a) Law cannot be universal or general in character
(b) Law is found and not made
(c) Law grows with the growth and strengthens with the strength of people
(d) Law is an instrument of social change and social reform
Ans. (d)
Q.24. Who among the following propounded the theory of possession which lays stress not on animus, but on de facto control?
(a) Salmond
(b) Pollock
(b) Pollock
(c) Holmes
(d) Jhering
Ans. (b)
Q.25. ‘A’ borrowed a sum of Rs. 5,000/- from ‘B’, which he did not repay for a period of three years. Now which
one of the following rights does ‘B’ have against ‘A’?
(a) Perfect right
(b) Imperfect right
(c) Proprietary right
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
Q.26. What do Rights in re-aliena mean ?
(a) Rights in the things of others
(b) Rights in one’s own things
(c) Rights relating to property
(d) Rights to receive damages
Ans. (a)
Q.27. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the List:
List-I                                                       List-Il
A. Supreme Legislation                 1.Law based on discretion of the authority
B. Executive Legislation                2. Law enacted by authority other than legislature
C. Debated Legislation                  3. Law enacted by the legislation
D. Conditional Legislation            4. Ordinance issued by the resident/Governor Law
made by judges with the case
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 5 1
Ans. (a)
Q.28. Who among the following divided the sources of law into formal sources and material sources?
(a) Allen
(b) Keeton
(c) Salmond
(d) Gray
Ans. (c)
Q.29. Why is the expiatory theory of punishment obsolete now?
(a) It does not empower the State to impose punish
(b) It is incapable to reform the wrong doer
(c) It is based on moral doctrines
(d) It enlarges the limits of jurisprudence
Ans. (c)
Q.30. Eugen Ehrlich is a well known Jurist of sociological school of jurisprudence. Which one of the following statements may not be attributed to the theory propounded by him?
(a) Law is derived from social facts
(b) Law depends on social compulsion
(c) There is a ‘living law’ underlying the formal rule of the legal system
(d) State law has significant influence on shaping and development of living law
Ans. (d)
Q.31. Balancing of social interests and the doctrines of social engineering is the greatest contribution to sociological school. This is attributed to whom?
(a) Duguit
(b) Roscoe Pound
(c) Savigny
(d) Jhering.
Ans. (b)
Q.32. Which of the following factors are responsible for the resurgence in favour of natural law thinking in the twentieth century ?
1. The decline in social and economic stability in the twentieth century
2. The expansion in government activity
3. Growth of weapons of destruction and policies of. genocide
4. Growing inclination of people towards religion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 6
(d) 1 and 4
Ans. (c)
Q.33.Match List-I (Jurists) with List-II (View About Law/Jurisprudence) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I                                                                List-II
(Jurists)                                            (View About Law/Jurisprudence)
A. Bentham                                               1. Concept of law
B. Austin                                                   2. Pure theory of law
C. Kelsen                                                  3. Limits of jurisprudence defined
D. Hart                                                      4. Province of jurisprudence determined
5. Concept of living law
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 5 3
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 3 2 5 1
Ans. (b)
Q.34. There is a clear cut division between the spheres of the legislature and the judiciary. The former makes the laws and the latter applies them. Which one of the following propounds this doctrine ?
(a) Analytical jurisprudence
(b) Historical jurisprudence
(c) Sociological jurisprudence
(d) Philosophical jurisprudence
Ans.(a)
Q.35. It is said that the next step forward in the long path of man’s progress must be from jurisprudence to jurimetrics. In this context, what does jurimetrics signify?
1. Speculation about law
2. Scientific investigation of legal problems
3. Increasing awareness of the fruits of interdisciplinary co-operation
4. Relationship between law, economy and society
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,3and4
(d) 1, 2and 4
Ans.(b)
Directions The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled the Assertion (A) and the other labelled the Reason (R). You are to examine these two statement carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true and if so, whether the reason is correct explanation of the Assertion. Select you answers to these questions using the codes given below and mark our answer sheet accordingly.
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false,
(d) A is false but R is true.
Q.36. Assertion (A) : Austin does speak of the science of law
Reason (R) : Science of law and philosophy of positive law are synonymous to him.
Ans. (c)
Q.37. The Constitution of India is federal in character because
(a) the Head of the State (the President) is elected by an electoral college cOnsisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States
(b) the Governors of States are appointed by the President and they hold office during the pleasure of the President
(c) there is distribution of power between the Union and the States
(d) the amendment of the Constitution can be made only by following the procedure laid down in the Constitution and in some cases the amendment requires ratification by Legislatures of the States
Ans. (c)
Q.38. Consider the following judgments delivered by the Supreme Court of India in:
1. Keshvananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. Re Berubari
3. Excel Weary. Union of India
The correct chronological sequence of the above judgments is:
(a) 1, 3, 2
(b) l, 2, 3
(c) 3, 1, 2
(d) 2, 1, 3
Ans. (d)
Q.39. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes introduced by an amendment of the Constitution?
(a) Balaji v. State of Mysore
(b) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan
(c) Devadasan v. Union of India
(d) Periakaruppan v.State of Tamil Nadu.
Ans. (b)
Q.40. An Electricity Board terminated the Services of certain employees arbitrarily without giving notice. Which one of the following alternative remedies can be best adopted by the concerned employees?
(a) The employees can move the High Court by a writ as Electricity Board is included within the definition of State.
(b) The employees can make an appeal to the State Government.
(c) The employees can move the High Court after getting the permission of Electricity Board only.
(d) The employees can directly approach the Supreme Court for violation of a fundamental right
Ans. (a)
Q.41. Which one of the following is NOT ‘State’ for the purpose of Article 1.2 of the Constitution?
(a) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(b) A nationalized bank
(c) Institute of Medical Education and Research Chandigarh
(d) Grih Katyan Kendra
Ans. (a)
Q.42. Under the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is NOT a specific ground on which the State can place restrictions on freedom of religion?
(a) Public order
(b) Morality
(c) Social Justice
(d) Health
Ans. (c)
Q.43 .Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Fundamental Right of the minorities in educational matters?
1. The minority has only the right to administer the educational institutions.
2. The . minority has the right to. establish and administer educational institutions.
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any restriction.
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed to promote efficiency and prevent maladministration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (b)
Q.44. Arrange the following decision of the Supreme Court on Fundamental Right relating to personal liberty in the correct chronological sequence:
1. Menaka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. A.D.M. Jabalpur v. Shiva Kant Shukla
3. A.K.Gopalan v. State of Madras
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 3, 2, 1
(b) 2, 1, 3
(c) 2,3, l
(d) 1, 2, 3
Ans. (a)
Q.45. Fundamental duties have been add in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:
(a) Santhannam Committee
(b) Sarkaria Committee
(c) Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Indira Gandhi-Nehru Committee
Ans. (c)
Q.46. “Provisions relating to fundamental duties cannot be enforced by writs. They can be only promoted by constitutional methods. But they can be used for interpreting ambiguous statutes.”
In which one of the following cases was the aforesaid principle enunciated?
(a) Moti Lal v. State of U.P.
(b) Civil Rights Committee v. Union of India
(c) Head Masters v. Union of India
(d) Magan Bhai v. Union of India
Ans. (c)
Q.47. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans. (b)
Q.48. In the event of occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and the Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till a new President is elected?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Senior-most Governor.
Ans. (c)
Q.49. The executive power of the Union is vested in the:
(a) Union Cabinet
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Union Council of Ministers
Ans. (b)
Q.50. Who among the following can establish additional courts for better administration of any existing law with respect to a matter concerned in the Union List?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) High Court of the concerned State
(c) Parliament
(d) Concerned State Legislature
Ans. (c)