Showing posts with label UPSC. Show all posts
Showing posts with label UPSC. Show all posts

Wednesday, August 28, 2013

UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam. February 2013 Solved Paper

UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam, February 2013
General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. Outstanding historian Eric Hobsbawm who expired on 1st October, 2012, has authored a large number of books. The title of his famous autobiography is–
(a) Bandits
(b) Uncommon People : Resistance, Rebellion and Jazz
(c) The New Century : In Conversation with Antonio Polito
(d) Interesting Times : A Twentieth Century Life
Ans : (d)

2. Which of the following institutions was/were asked by the Government of India to provide official estimates of black (unaccounted) money held by Indians, both in India and abroad?
1. National Institute of Public Finance and Policy
2. National Council of Applied Economic Research
3. National Institute of Financial Management
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (d)

3. The concept which tries to ascertain the actual deficit in the revenue account after adjusting for expenditure of capital nature is termed as–
(a) revenue deficit (b) effective revenue deficit
(c) fiscal deficit (d) primary deficit
Ans : (b)

4. Which one among the following programmes has now been restructured as the National Rural Livelihood Mission?
(a) Swarna Jayanti Shahri Rozgar Yojana
(b) Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(c) Janshree Bima Yojana
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
Ans : (b)

5. Which of the following are included in the category of Direct Tax in India?
1. Corporation Tax 2. Tax on Income 3. Wealth Tax
4. Customs Duty 5. Excise Duty
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 4 and 5
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 3, 4 and 5
Ans : (a)

6. Which one among the following is a fixed cost to a manufacturing firm in the short run ?
(a) Insurance on buildings (b) Overtime payment to workers
(c) Cost of energy (d) Cost of raw materials
Ans : (a)

7. The government can influence private sector expenditure by–
1. taxation 2. subsidies
3. macroeconomic policies 4. grants
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (a)

8. Which of the following occupations are included under secondary sector as per the national income accounts?
1. Manufacturing 2. Construction
3. Gas and water supply 4. Mining and quarrying
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 3 and 4 only
Ans : (c)

9. The sharp depreciation of rupee in the Forex market in the year 2011 was due to–
1. flight to safety by foreign investors
2. meltdown in European markets
3. inflation in emerging market economies
4. lag effect of monetary policy tightening
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (a)

10. The lower growth of coal production in India during 2011-12 was primarily due to–
1. environmental restrictions
2. non-availability of forestry clearance
3. poor law and order situation in coal-producing States
4. excessive rainfall in coalmining areas
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only
Ans : (b)

11. Human Poverty Index (HPI) developed by UNDP is based on which of the following deprivations ?
1. Income deprivation 2. Literacy deprivation
3. Social services deprivation 4. Employment deprivation
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans : (b)

12. In the Gupta age, Varahamihira wrote the famous book, ‘Bribat Sambita’. It was a treatise on–
(a) Astronomy (b) Statecraft
(c) Ayurvedic system of medicine (d) Economics
Ans : (a)

13. The highly polished monolithic Ashokan Pillars were carved out of single pieces of a buff-coloured sandstone, usually mined from the quarries of–
(a) Chunar near Mirzapur (b) Lauriya in Nandangarh
(c) Sarnath near Varanasi (d) Udayagiri near Bhubaneswar
Ans : (a)

14. Which one-among the following statements with regard to the National Security Council (NSC) of India is not correct ?
(a) It is a three-tiered organisation
(b) The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is its member
(c) It is the apex body looking exclusively the security concerns of the country
(d) RAW and Intelligence Bureau (India) report to NSC
Ans : (d)

15.The fortification of Calcutta by the British in 1756 was regarded by the Nawab of Bengal, Sirajud-daulah, as–
(a) growth of large-scale British trade
(b) an attack upon his sovereignty
(c) insecurity of the British in India
(d) British control aver Bengal
Ans : (b)

16. Which one among the following has been included as a parameter far the first time under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) based an Central Pollution Control Board and IIT-Kanpur research, WHO guidelines and European Union limits arid practices?
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
Ans : (c)

17. Fourth BRICS Summit, held in New Delhi in March 2012, deliberated an the challenges faced by India, for sustainable growth. Which one among the fallowing is not a part of the formulated challenges?
(a) Improvements required in public sector management
(b) Inclusive growth
(c) Improvements required in physical infrastructure
(d) Development in the agricultural sector
Ans : (d)

18. ONGC Videsh (the State-owned oil and gas company of India) recently (September 2012) signed a definitive agreement with–
(a) Russia (b) Azerbaijan
(c) Iran (d) South Sudan
Ans : (b)

19. Which one among the following regarding G-20 is not correct ?
(a) A group of developed countries
(b) An integral part of the United Nations
(c) Outside the World Bank and IMF
(d) An offshoot of G-7
Ans : (b)

20. Which one among the following countries initiated the process of Fourth Wave of Democratic Transition ?
(a) Libya (b) Afghanistan
(c) Tunisia (d) Morocco
Ans : (c)

21. Some atheists, skeptics and non- believers called to celebrate 'December 25' as Newtonmas Day instead of observing Christmas Day. The reason they propose that
(a) both Isaac Newton and Jesus Christ were great
(b) Isaac Newton was born on 25th December
(c) 'Skeptic Society' was founded on 25th December
(d) Isaac Newton was a deep believer of Christianity
Ans : (b)

22. European Union's Annual Sakharov Prize for Freedom of Thought for 2012 has been won by–
(a) Guillermo Farinas from Cuba
(b) Nasrin Sotoudeh and Jafar Panahi from Iran
(c) Ali Farzat from Syria and Mohamed Bouazizi from Tunisia
(d) Asmaa Mahfouz and Ahmed al-Senussi from Egypt and Libya respectively
Ans : (b)

23. The Rohingya are the minorities of–
(a) South Africa (b) Canada
(c) Myanmar (d) Bhutan
Ans : (c)

24. Consider the following statements :
During the last week of November 2012, Palestinian engineers dug up the tomb of Yasser Arafat. This was done primarily to–
1. place the remains of Yasser Arafat in a mosque compound
2. confirm the prevailing suspicion that Israel had poisoned him
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (b)

25. Rafael Nadal won the French Open Tennis Title, 2012. He defeated–
(a) Andy Murray (b) Roger Federer
(c) Novak Djokovic (d) David Ferrer
Ans : (c)

26. Which one among the following was added in the year 2012 in the list of World Heritage Sites of the UNESCO?
(a) Western Ghats (b) Agra Fort
(c) Ajanta Caves (d) Meenakshi Temple
Ans : (a)

27. Which one among the following is not a salient feature of the Companies Bill as amended in the year 2012 ?
(a) For spending the amount earmarked for corporate social responsibility, the company shall give preferences to local areas where it operates
(b) Punishment for falsely inducing a person to enter into an agreement with bank or financial institution with a view to obtaining credit facilities
(c) There is no limit in respect of companies in which a person may be appointed as auditor
(d) ‘Independent directors’ shall be excluded for the purpose of computing 'one-third of retiring directors'
Ans : (c)

28. FDI in Multi-Brand Retail Trade (MBRT) in all products is now permitted in India subject to–
1. a ceiling of 51%
2. minimum amount to be brought in as FDI by the foreign investor' is US $ 100 million
3. at least 50% of the procurement of manufactured/processed products should be sourced from 'small industries'
4. retail sales locations set up only in cities with a population of mote than 10 lacs
Select the correct condition/ conditions using the code given below–
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans : (d)

29. Why was Kaushik Basu, the ex-economic advisor to the Prime Minister of India, in news recently ? He was appointed as–
(a) the President of the IMF
(b) the President of the World Bank
(c) the Economic Advisor of the United Nations
(d) the Chief Economist of the World Bank
Ans : (d)

30. Who among the following was selected for the prestigious Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, 2012 ?
(a) Ellen Johnson Sirleaf (b) Ela Bhatt
(c) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (d) Sheikh Hasina
Ans : (a)

31. Between 1309 and 1311, Malik Kafur led two campaigns in South India. The significance of the expeditions lies in it that–
1. they reflected a high degree of boldness and spirit of adventure on the part of the Delhi rulers
2. the invaders returned to Delhi with untold wealth
3. they provided fresh geographical knowledge
4. Ala-ud-din promoted Malik Kafur to the rank of Malik-naib or Vie Regent of the Empire
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (c)

32. Ibn Batuta's work, Rihla, completed in 1355, is–
(a) an autobiography
(b) an account of the Delhi Sultans from Aibek to Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
(c) a religious text
(d) an account of trade with Morocco
Ans : (a)

33. Several socio-political organisations were formed in the 19th and 20th Centuries in India. Anguman-e-Khawatin-e-Islam, founded in the year 1914 was–
(a) All India Muslim Ladies Conference
(b) a radical wing of the All India Muslim League
(c) All India Muslim Students' Conference
(d) All India Islamic Conference
Ans : (a)

34. British colonialism in India saw the emergence of new cities. Calcutta (now Kolkata) was one of the first cities. Which of the following villages were amalgamated to form the city of Calcutta?
(a) Midnapur, Chittagong, Burdwan
(b) 24-Parganas, Kalikata, Thakurgaon
(c) Sutanuti, Kalikata, Gobindapur
(d) Midnapur, Thakurgaon, Gobindapur
Ans : (c)

35.What was ‘Ziyarat’ in the language of the Sufis ?
(a) Pilgrimage to the tombs of Sufi saints for seeking barkat (spiritual grace)
(b) Reciting divine name
(c) Offering free kitchens run on futub (unasked for charity)
(d) Setting up of auqaf (charitable trusts)
Ans : (a)

36. Which of the following was /were not related to Buddha's life ?
1. Kanthaka 2. Alara Kalama
3. Channa 4. Goshala Maskariputra
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(a) 1 only (b) 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 3 and 4
Ans : (b)

Monday, May 27, 2013

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMINARY EXAM GENERAL STUDIES PAPER-I KEY (EXAM HELD ON: 26-05-2013)

1.    What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a)    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommen¬dations of the Rajya Sabha
(b)    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
(c)    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d)    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Answer (A)

2.    Which      one      of     the      following statements is correct?
(a)    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time
(b)    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President
(c)    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post
(d)    In the case of a the Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support
    Answer (C)

3.    Which-one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
    Geographical Feature        Region      
(a)    Abyssinian Plateau:            Arabia
(b)    Atlas Mountains:            North Western Africa
(c)    Guiana Highlands:        :    South Western Africa          
(d)    Okavango Basin:            Patagonia
Answer (B)

4.    With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements :
1.    The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
2.    The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
3.    At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which   of   the    statements    given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

5.    Recombinant       DNA       technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
1.    across different species of plants
2.    from animals to plants
3.    from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

6.    The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/ are correct?
1.    The roads and river-routes were completely immune from robbery.   
2.    As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
3.    The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only-
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

7.    Consider the following:
1.    Star tortoise
2.    Monitor lizard
3.    Pygmy hog
4.    Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

8.    Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
1.    Arsenic
2.    Sorbitol
3.    Fluoride
4.    Formaldehyde
5.    Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2, 4 and 5 only
(c)    1, 3 and 5 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer (C)

9.    With   reference   to   Indian   History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were
(a)    directly elected by the people of those Provinces
(b)    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c)    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(d)    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters
Answer (C)

10.    Consider the following animals:
1.    Sea cow
2.    Sea-horse
3.    Sea lion
Which of the above is/ are mammal/mammals?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

11.    Consider the following statements:
1.    An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
2.    If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.
Which   of   the   statements   given above is/ are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor
Answer (D)

12.    Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can
1.    take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
2.    be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
3.    speak in the Lok Sabha
4.    vote in the Lok Sabha
Which   of   the   statements   given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 4
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    1 and 3 only
Answer (C)

13.    With reference to the usefulness of the by-products of sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
2.    Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
3.    Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

14.    Variations-in the length of daytime and   nighttime   from   season   to season are due to
(a)    the earth's rotation on its axis
(b)    the   earth's   revolution   round the sun in an elliptical manner
(c)    latitudinal position of the place
(d)    revolution  of the  earth  on  a tilted axis
Answer (D)

15.    The Narmada river flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
1.    It occupies a linear rift valley.
2.    It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
3.    The land  slopes  to  the  west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

16.    On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
(a)    is   found   in   atmosphere   as moisture and clouds
(b)    is  found in  freshwater lakes and rivers
(c)    exists as groundwater
(d)    exists as soil moisture
Answer (C)

17.    Consider the following pairs:
1.   Nokrek Biosphere Reserve    : Garo Hills
2.   Logtak (Loktak)Lake    Barail Ranee
3.Namdapha National Park   :    Dafla Hills
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

18.    Consider the following:
1.    Electromagnetic radiation
2.    Geothermal energy
3.    Gravitational force
4.    Plate movements
5.    Rotation of the earth
6.    Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
(a)    1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(b)    1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Answer (D)

19.    Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
1.    National Development Council
2.    Planning Commission
3.    Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

20.    The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
(a)    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
(b)    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
(c)    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
(d)    writing off all peasant debts
Answer (A)


21.    The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties
(a)    with   the   consent   of  all   the States
(b)    with    the    consent    of    the majority of States
(c)    with the consent of the States concerned
(d)    without the consent of any state
Answer (D)

22.    In   the   grasslands,   trees   do   not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
(a)    insects and fungi
(b)    limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients,
(c)    water limits and fire
(d)    None of the above
Answer (C)

23.    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity
(a)    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
(b)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes
(c)    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes oceans
(d)    Oceans, mangroves, lakes grasslands
Answer (D)

24.  Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
(a)    Desert margins, liable to strong wing action
(b)    low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
(c)    Scrublands, liable to spread to weed growth
(d)    None to the above
Answer (A)

25.    The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
(a)    To provide self- governance
(b)    To recognize traditional rights
(c)    To create autonomous regions
(d) To free tribal people form exploitation
Answer (C)


26.    Under   the   Scheduled   Tribes   and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
(a)    State Forest Department
(b)    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner
(c)    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer
(d)    Gram Sabha
Answer (D)

27.    Improper handling and   storage   of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Affetoxins are produced by
(a)    bacteria
(b)    protozoa
(c)    moulds
(d)    viruses
Answer (C)

28.    'Economic     Justice'     as     one     of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a)    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b)    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c)    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d)    None of the above
Answer (B)

29.    Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
1.    Beryllium
2.    Cadmium
3.    Chromium
4.    Heptachlor
5.    Mercury
6.    Lead
7.    Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
(b)    1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
(c)    2, 4, 5 and 7 only
(d)    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Answer (B)

30.    Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
(a)    carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b)    carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
(c)    ozone and carbon dioxide
(d)    nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Answer (D)

31.    With reference to food; chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
1.    A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
2.    Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
3.    A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (A)

32.   Consider the following pairs:
    National Park    River flowing through the Park
1.    Corbett National Park   :     Ganga
2.    Kaziranga National Park   :     Manas
3.    Silent Valley National Park   :     Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? '
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    3 only
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (D)

33.    Consider the following organisms:
1.    Agaricus
2.    Nostoc
3.    Spirogyra
Which of the   above   is/are   used as biofertilizer/bio fertilizers?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    3 only
Answer (C)

34.    Which   of   the   following   adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
1.    Excretion of urea by animals
2.    Burning of coal by man
3.    Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

35.    In which of the following States is lion-tailed   macaque   found   in   its natural habitat?
1.        Tamil Nadu
2.         Kerala
3.    Karnataka
4.    Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

36.    Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
(a)    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
(b)    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
(c)    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the "hall axial to it
(d)    There is no material difference between the two
Answer (B)

37.    Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
(a)    The extinction of the flame of desire
(b)    The complete annihilation of self
(c)    A state of bliss and rest
(d)    A   mental   stage   beyond   all comprehension
Answer (C)

38.    According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a)    Fundamental Rights
(b)    Fundamental Duties
(c)    Directive   Principles   of   State Policy
(d)    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Answer (C)

39.    The people of India agitated against the arrival of Simon Commission because:
(a)    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
(b)    Simon Commission recom-mended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces
(c)    there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
(d)    the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Answer (C)

40.    Quit India Movement was launched in response to
(a)    Cabinet Mission Plan
(b)    Cripps Proposals
(c)    Simon Commission Report
(d)    Wavell Plan
Answer (B)


41.    The    balance    of   payments    of   a country is a systematic record of
(a)    all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
(b)    goods exported from a country during a year
(c)    economic transaction between the government of one country to another
(d)    capital movements from one country to another
Answer (C)

42.    The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of
1.    liquidity of assets
2.    branch expansion
3.    merger of banks
4.    winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 4 only
(b)    2, 3 and 4 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (D)

43.    An   increase   in   the   Bank   Rate generally indicates that the
(a)    market rate of interest is likely to fall
(b)    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
(c)    Central Bank is following an easy money policy
(d)    Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Answer (D)

44.    In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for
(a)    economic development
(b)    redemption of public debt
(c)    adjusting the balance of payments
(d)   reducing the foreign debt
Answer (A)

45.    Which of the following characterizes/ characterize the people of Indus Civilization?
1.    They possessed great palaces and temples.
2.    They   worshipped, both   male and female deities.
3.    They   employed   horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/ statements fusing the codes given below.
(a)       1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None of the statements given above is correct
Answer (A)

46.    Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
1.    Chikungunya
2.    Hepatitis B
3.    HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)        1 and 3 only
(d)        1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

47. Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
1.    The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
2.    Every object, even the smallest particle has a soul.
3.    Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

48.    Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by organism, but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
(a)   Ecotone
(b)   Ecological niche
(c)    Habitat
(d)    Home range
Answer (C)

49.    Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
(a)    NO2, O3 and     peroxyaceryl nitrate in the    presence of sunlight
(b)    CO, O2 and     peroxyacetyl nitrate    in    the    presence    of
(c)    CO,   CO2    and   N02    at   low temperature
(d)    high   concentration   of   N02, 03 and CO in the evening
Answer (A)

50.    Consider the following minerals:
1.    Calcium
2.    Iron
3.    Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a)   1 only
(b)   2 and 3 only
(c)   1 and 3 only
(d)   1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)

51.    Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1.    consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha
2.    scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government
3.    examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

52.    Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
1.    Dadu Dayal
2.    Guru Nanak
3.    Tyagaraja
Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?
(a)    1 and 3
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    1 and 2
Answer (B)

53.    With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
1.    Virus
2.    Fungi
3.    Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the codes given below,
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

54.    The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
(a)    warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
(b)    rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
(c)    warm and cold oceanic currents meet
(d)    continental shelf is undulating
Answer (C)

55.    Which of the following is /are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?
1.    Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
2.    Coexistence of a large number of species
3.    Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

56.    Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
1.    Foreign Loans
2.    Foreign Direct Investment
3.    Private Remittances
4.    Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    1, 2 and 4
(c)    2, 3 and 4
(d)    1, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

57.    Consider the following historical places:
1.    Ajanta Caves
2.    Lepakshi Temple
3.    Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

58.    With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the    following statements regarding Sankhya school:
1.    Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
2.    Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any  exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

59.    In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1.    Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2.    Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3.    Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

60.    The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?
1.    Thermal difference between land and water
2.    Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
3.    Presence of strong winds in the interior
4.    Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)


61. Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?
1.    High ash content
2.    Low sulphur content
3.    Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

62.    Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
1.    They are generally red in colour.
2.    They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3.    They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
4.    Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    2, 3 and 4
(c)    1 and 4
(d)    2 and 3 only
Answer (C)

63.    Consider the following statements:
1.    Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
2.    Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
3.    Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 and 2
(b)    2 only
(c)    2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (B)

64.    Consider the following crops:
1.    Cotton
2.    Groundnut
3.    Rice
4.    Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a)    1 and 4
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    2, 3 and 4
Answer (C)

65.    "Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders."
    The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
    (a)    African Savannah
    (b)    Central Asian Steppe
    (c)    North American Prairie
    (d)    Siberian Tundra
    Answer (D)

66. Consider the following statements:
    1.    Inflation benefits the debtors.
    2.    Inflation benefits the bond-holders.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a)    1 only
    (b)    2 only
    (c)    Both 1 and 2
    (d)    Neither 1 nor 2
    Answer (A)

67.    Disguised unemployment generally means
(a)    large number of people remain unemployed
(b)    alternative employment is not available
(c)    marginal productivity of labour is zero
(d)    productivity of workers is low
Answer (C)

68.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2.    The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3.    The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

69. Consider the following statements:
1.    National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
2.    The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List m the Constitution of India.
3.    The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (B)

70.    Consider the following statements:
1.    The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2.    While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and 2
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (B)

71.    With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
1.    Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
2.    It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    Both 1 and
(d)    Neither 1 nor 2
Answer (C)

72. During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
1.    meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky
2.    lightning that separates the nimbus clouds
3.    violent upward movement of air and water particles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3
(c)    1 and 3
(d)    None of the above produces the thunder
Answer (C)

73.    Consider the following pairs:
    Tribe        State
    1. Limboo (Limbu) : Sikkim
    2. Karbi : Himachal Pradesh
    3. Dongaria Kondh : Odisha
    4. Bonda : Tamil Nadu
    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a)    1 and 3 only
(b)    2 and 4 only
(c)    1, 3 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (A)

74. Consider the following liquid assets:
1.    Demand deposits with the banks
2.    Time deposits with the banks
3.    Savings deposits with the banks
4. Currency
The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
(a)    1-4-3-2
(b)    4-3-2-1
(c)    2-3-1-4
(d)    4-1-3-2
Answer (D)

75.    In the context of Indian economy, 'Open Market Operations' refers to
(a)    borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
(b)    lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
(c)    purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
(d)     None of the above
Answer (C)

76.    Priority Sector Lending by banks in
    India constitutes the lending to
(a)    agriculture
(b)    micro and small enterprises
(c)    weaker sections
(d)    All of the above
Answer (D)

77.    Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
(a)    Engineering
(b)    Paper and pulp
(c)    Textiles
(d)    Thermal power
Answer (B)

78.    To obtain full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
(a)    Promoting skill development
(b)    Introducing more social security schemes
(c)    Reducing infant mortality rate
(d)    Privatization of higher education
Answer (A)

79.    In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
(a)    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
(b)    Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters
(c)    Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
(d)    A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Answer (A)

80.    Annie Besant was
1.    responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
2.    the founder of the Theosophical Society
3.    once the President of the Indian National Congress
Select the correct statement/ statements using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)


81.    The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
(a)    imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians
(b)    imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages
(c)    removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans
(d)    removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth
Answer (C)

82.    A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
1.    an increase in the money supply
2.    a decrease in the aggregate level of output
3.    an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    1 and 2 only
(c)    2 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

83.    Which one of the following groups of items is included in India's foreign-exchange reserves?
(a)    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries
(b)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs
(c)    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs
(d)    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank
Answer (B)

84.    Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary, in its effect?
(a)    Repayment of public debt
(b)    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
(c)    Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deceit,
(d)    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Answer (D)

85.    Supply of money regaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
(a)    a fall in the level of prices
(b)    an increase in the rate of interest
(c)    a decrease in the rate of interest
(d)    an increase in the level of income and employment
Answer (B)

86.    Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
(a)    exposure to sunlight is prevented
(b)    concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased
(c)    rate of respiration is decreased
(d)    there is an increase in humidity
Answer (C)

87.    Consider the following fauna of India:
1.    Gharial
2.    Leatherback turth
3.    Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    3 only
(c)    1, 2 and 3
(d)    None
Answer (C)

89.    Consider the following phenomena:
1.    Size of the sun at dusk
2.    Colour of the sun at dawn
3.    Moon being visible at dawn
4.    Twinkle of stars in the sky
5.    Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
(a)    1, 2 and 3
(b)    3, 4 and 5
(c)    1, 2 and 4
(d)    2, 3 and 5
Answer (C)

90.    Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
1.    Dispersion
2.    Refraction
3.    Internal reflection
Select the correct answer codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

91. Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
(a)    the new soil does not contain favorable minerals
(b)    most of the coot hairs grip the new soil too hard
(c)    most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation leaves get damaged during transplantation
(d)    leaves get damaged during transplantation
Answer (C)

92.    Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
(a)    there is technical progress in the world economy
(b)    there is population growth in X
(c)    there is capital formation in X
(d)    the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Answer (C)

93.    Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.    Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
2.    Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
3.    Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

94.    Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
1.    Hard and waxy leaves
2.    Tiny leaves or no leaves
3.    Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

95.    The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a)    Gravity is the strongest of the four
(b)    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge
(c)    Weak nuclear force causes, radioactivity
(d)    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Answer (A)

96.    The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importance’s of discovering this particle?
1.    It will enable us to understand as to why elementary particles have mass.
2.    It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
3.    It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (A)

97.    Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
1.    resist drought and increase absorptive area
2.    tolerate extremes of pH
3.    resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1 only
(b)    2 and 3 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (D)

98.    Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1.    The Prime Minister
2.    The Chairman, Finance Commission
3.    Ministers of the Union Cabinet
4.    Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a)    1, 2 and 3 only
(b)    1, 3 and 4 only
(c)    2 and 4 only
(d)    1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer (B)

99. The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the
(a)    total value of goods and services produced by the nationals
(b)    sum of total consumption and investment expenditure
(c)    sum of personal income of all individuals
(d)    money value of final goods and services produced
Answer (A)

100.    Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
1.    Regional Rural Banks
2.    National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
3.    Land Development Banks
Select the correct answer using the codes 'given below.
(a)    1 and 2 only
(b)    2 only
(c)    1 and 3 only
(d)    1, 2 and 3
Answer (C)


Thursday, March 7, 2013

UPSC Civil Service Examination, 2013


 The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2013 on 26/05/2013 for recruitment of various posts of Indian Administrative Service (IAS), Indian Foreign Service (IFS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and certain other Group 'A' and Group 'B' Central Services / Posts. 
Eligibility:
  • Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 01/08/2013. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
  • Educational Qualification: Degree of a recognised university or an equivalent qualification.
  • Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
  • Number of Attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible will be as follows:
    • General Category : Four
    • Physical Handicapped : Seven
    • OBC : Seven
    • SC / ST : No Limit
Online Application Submission : Candidates must apply Online also at http://upsconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php from 05/03/203 to 04/04/2013 .
Fee: Deposit Rs.100/- (No fee for Female/ SC/ST/PH candidates) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by Cash, or by using net banking facility of State Bank of India/ State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/ Sate Bank of Hyderabad/ State Bank of Mysore/ State Bank of Patiala /State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/ Master Credit/ Debit Card.
Candidates can obtain details of the examination, venues of the examination and syllabus etc. at  http://upsc.gov.in/exams/notifications/2013/csp_ifs/index.htm

UPSC INDIAN FOREST SERVICE EXAMINATION (IFS) , 2013


 The Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) will hold the Indian Forest Service (IFS) Examination 2013 for recruitment to the Indian Forest Service Officers commencing from 26/05/2013. The pattern of the Indian Forest Service Examination 2013 has been changed and candidates for IFS Examination 2013 needs to appear in the Indian Civil Service Examination (Preliminary) 2013 for the same. Therefore candidates needs to apply for Indian Civil Service Examination 2013 to appear in Indian Forest Service Examination 2013

Eligibility:
  • Age : Not less than 21 years and not more than 30 years as on 1st August 2013. The upper age is relaxable for SC/ST/OBC and certain other categories of candidates to the extent specified in the Notice.
  • Educational Qualification: Bachelor's degree of any recognised university with at least one of the subjects namely Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science, Botany, Chemistry, Geology, Mathematics, Physics, Statistics and Zoology or a Bachelor's degree in Agriculture, Forestry or in Engineering or an equivalent qualification.
  • Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to the Regulations given in notice.
  • Number of attempts: The maximum number of attempts permissible to different categories of aspirants, who are otherwise eligible, will be as (i) General Category - 4 attempts, (ii) OBC - 7 attempts (iii) SC/ST - No limit

Fee: Candidates applying (excepting Female/SC/ST/PH candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) for Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination are required to pay a fee of Rs.100/- either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI, State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/ State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/ Master Credit/ Debit card.
How To Apply: All applications must apply Online from 05/03/2013 to 04/04/2013 only upto 11.59 PM. at http://upsconline.nic.in/mainmenu2.php

 Candidates can obtain details of the examination and can get information about registration of their applications, venues of the examination and syllabus etc at the website of the UPSC at  http://upsc.gov.in/exams/notifications/2013/csp_ifs/index.htm

Thursday, May 24, 2012

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2012 PAPER-II SOLUTIONS WITH EXPLANATIONS

1. Consider the following statements:
1. All artists are whimsical.
2. Some artists are drug addicts.
3. Frustrated people are prone to become drug addicts.
From the above three statements it may be concluded that
(a) Artists are frustrated.
(b) Some drug addicts are whimsical.
(c) All frustrated people are drug addicts.
(d) Whimsical people are generally frustrated.
Ans. (b)
Exp: All artists are whimsical and some of the artists are drug addicts. Thus all those artists who are drug addict are also whimsical. Hence some drug addicts are whimsical and correct answer option is (b).
2. Examine the following statements:
1. Either A and B are of the same age or A is older than B.
2. Either C and D are of the same age or D is older than C.
3. B is older than C.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) A is older than B (b) B and D are of the same age
(c) D is older than C (d) A is older than C
Ans. (d)
Exp: A is more than equal to B and B is more than C. Hence A is more than C. Regarding ages of B and D, anyone can be elder or younger to anyone. Hence answer is (d).
3. Examine the following statements:
1. Only those who have a pair of binoculars can become the members of the birdwatcher’s club.
2. Some members of the birdwatcher’s club have cameras.
3. Those members who have cameras can take part in photo-contests.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All those who have a pair of binoculars are members of the birdwatcher’s club.
(b) All members of the birdwatcher’s club have a pair of binoculars.
(c) All those who take part in photo-contests are members of the birdwatcher’s club.
(d) No conclusion can be drawn.
Ans. (b)
Exp: Only those who have binoculars can be a part of birdwatcher’s club, hence all the members of birdwatcher’s club will have binoculars for sure. But all those who have binoculars may not be part of birdwatcher’s club. Hence answer is (b).
4. During the last summer vacation, Ankit went to a summer camp where he took part in hiking, swimming and boating. This summer, he is looking forward to a music camp where he hopes to sing, dance and learn to play the guitar.
Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?
(a) Ankit’s parents want him to play the guitar.
(b) Ankit prefers music to outdoor activities.
(c) Ankit goes to some type of camp every summer.
(d) Ankit likes to sing and dance.
Ans. (c)
Exp: No reasons are specified in the question for going to different camps. Since, Ankit goes for different camps for different years; we can surely say that right answer is (c).
5. Three persons A, B and C wore shirts of black, blue and orange colours (not necessarily in that order) and pants of green, yellow and orange colours (not necessarily in that order). No person wore shirt and pants of the same colour. Further, it is given that
1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
4. A did not wear pants of green colour.
5. B wore pants of orange colour.
What were the colours of the pants and shirt worn by C, respectively?
(a) Orange and black (b) Green and blue
(c) Yellow and blue (d) Yellow and black
Ans. (b)
Exp: Solving the question we will get the following table for these three persons

6. Ten new TV shows started in January—5 sitcoms, 3 drama and 2 news magazines. By April, only seven of the new shows were still on, five of them being sitcoms.
Based on the above information, four conclusions, as given below, have been made. Which one of these logically follows from the information given above?
(a) Only one news magazine show is still on.
(b) Only one of the drama shows is still on.
(c) At least one discontinued shows was a drama.
Ans. (c)
Exp: No reason is provided for discontinuation of any program. Hence, nothing can be claimed about option (d). Although, as only 7 shows are continued, there are exactly 3 shows discontinued.  Out of these 3 shows, maximum of 2 can be news magazines. Hence, at least 1 drama has been discontinued. Hence answer is (c)

7. Read the passage given below and the two statements that follows (given on the basis of the passage) :
Four men are waiting at Delhi airport for a Mumbai flight. Two are doctors and the other two are businessmen. Two speak Gujarati and two speak Tamil. No two of the same profession speak the same language. Two are Muslims and two are Christians. No two of the same religion are of the same profession, nor do they speak the same language. The Tamil-speaking doctor is a Christian.
1. The Christian-businessman speaks Gujarati.
2. The Gujarati-speaking doctor is a Muslim.
What of the above statements is/are correct conclusion/conclusions?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Exp: Assume four persons are A, B, C, D. Following table gives descriptions of these four persons.
Hence answer is (c)
8. Consider the following statement:
“Though quite expensive, television is not a luxury item, as one can learn many things through television.”
Which one of the following is a valid inference from the above statement?
(a) All expensive things is a valid inference from the above statement.
(b) All essential things for learning are not luxury.
(c) Television is essential for learning.
(d) Television is not a luxury item.
Ans. (b)
Exp: In the statement given, television is considered not to be a luxury item just because one can learn various things from it. So, we can say that anything which is essential for learning is not luxury. Hence answer is (b).
9. Mr. Kumar drives to work at an average speed of 48 km per hour. The time taken to cover the first 60% of the distance is 10 minutes more than the time taken to cover the remaining distance. How far is his office?
(a) 30 km (b) 40 km
(c) 45 km (d) 48 km
Ans. (b)
Exp: Difference between time taken to travel 60% of journey and time taken to travel 40% of journey is the time taken to travel 20% of the journey. Hence, time taken to travel 20% of journey is 10 min and thus, time taken to travel complete journey (100% of journey) is 50 minutes. Hence, total distance is .
Hence, answer is (b)
10. Gita is prettier than Sita but not as pretty as Rita. Then,
(a) Sita is not as pretty as Gita.
(b) Sita is prettier than Rita.
(c) Rita is not as pretty as Gita.
(d) Gita is prettier than Rita.
Ans. (a)
Exp: Rita is prettier than Gita and Gita is prettier than Sita. Hence, Sita is not as pretty as Gita. Hence, answer is (a).
11. Given that,
1. A is the brother of B.
2. C is the father of A.
3. D is the brother of E.
4. E is the daughter of B.
Then, the uncle of D is
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) E
Ans. (a)
Exp: B’s daughter is E and her brother is D. Hence, D’s uncle will be B’s brother who is A. Hence, answer is (a).
12. Examine the following statements:
1. Rama scored less than Ratna.
2. Rani scored less than Ratna.
3. Ratna scored more than Rama.
4. Padma scored more than Rama but less than Ratna.
Who scored the highest?
(a) Rama (b) Padma
(c) Rani (d) Ratana
Ans. (d)
Exp: Ratna has scored more than Padma. Padma has scored more than Rama. Rama has scored more than Rani. Hence, Ratna has scored maximum marks. Hence, answer is (d).

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:
Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – 1
The poor, especially in market economies, need the strength that collectivities offer for creating more economic, social and political space for themselves, for enhancing their socioeconomic well-being and voice, and as a protection against free market individualism. It has been argued that a group approach to farming, especially in the form of bottom up agricultural production collectivities, offers substantial scope for poverty alleviation and empowering the poor as well as enhancing agricultural productivity. To realize this potential, however, the groups would need to be voluntary in nature, small in size, participative in decision making and equitable in work sharing and benefit distribution. There are many notable examples of such collectivities to be found in varied contexts, such as in the transition economies. All of them bear witness to the possibility of successful cooperation under given conditions. And although the gender impact of the family cooperatives in the transition economies are uncertain, the Indian examples of women-only groups farming offer considerable potential for benefiting women.

13. Agricultural collectivities such as group based farming can provide the rural poor
1. Empowerment.
2. Increased agricultural productivity.
3. Safeguard against exploitative markets.
4. Surplus production of agricultural commodities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (b)

14. What does the author imply by “gender impact”?
(a) Women are doubtful participants in cooperatives.
(b) Family cooperatives may not include women.
(c) Women benefiting from group farming.
(d) Women’s role in transition economies is highly restrictive.
Ans. (c)
15. Consider the following assumptions:
1. It is imperative for transition economies to have agricultural collectivities.
2. Agricultural productivity can be increased by group approach to farming.
With reference to the above passage, which of these assumptions is/are valid?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Passage – 2
In a typical Western liberal context, deepening of democracy invariably leads to consolidation of ‘liberal values”. In the Indian context, democratization is translated into greater involvement of people not as ‘individuals’ which is a staple to liberal discourse, but as communities or groups. Individuals are getting involved in the public sphere not as ‘atomized’ individuals but as members of primordial communities drawn on religious or caste identity. Community-identity seems to be the governing force. It is not therefore surprising that the so-called peripheral groups continue to maintain their identities with reference to the social groups (caste, religion or sect) to which they belong while getting involved in the political processes despite the fact that their political goals remain more or less identical. By helping to articulate the political voice of the marginalized, democracy in India has led to ‘a loosening of social strictures” and empowered the peripherals to be confident of their ability to improve the socio-economic conditions in which they are placed. This is a significant political process that had led to a silent revolution through a meaningful transfer of power from the upper caste elites to various subaltern groups within the democratic framework of public governance.

16. According to the passage, what does “deepening of democracy” mean in the Western context?
(a) Consolidation of group and class identities.
(b) Democratization translated as greater involvement of people.
(c) Democratization as greater involvement of ‘atomized” individuals in the public sphere.
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context. 
Ans. (d)

17. Greater democratization in India has not necessarily led to
(a) The dilution of caste and communal identities in the public sphere.
(b) Irrelevance of community identity as a governing force in Indian politics.
(c) Marginalization of elite groups in society.
(d) Relative unimportance of hereditary identities over class identities. 
Ans. (b)

18. What is the “silent revolution” that has occurred in the Indian democratic process?
(a) Irrelevance of caste and class hierarchies in political processes.
(b) Loosening of social strictures in voting behavior and patterns.
(c) Social change through transfer of power from upper caste elites to subaltern groups.
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.
Ans. (c)
Directions for the following 5 (five) items: Examine the information given in the following paragraph and answer the items that follow:
Guest lectures on five subjects viz., Economics, History, Statistics, English and Mathematics have to be arranged in a week from Monday to Friday. Only one lecture can be arranged on each day. Economics cannot be scheduled on Tuesday. Guest faculty for History is available only on Tuesday. Mathematics lecture has to be scheduled immediately after the day of Economics lecture. English lecture has to be scheduled immediately before the day of Economics lecture.
19. Which lecture is scheduled on Monday?
(a) History (b) Economics
(c) Mathematics (d) Statistics
Ans. (d)
Exp for question 19 to 23:
Tuesday has to be History and English, Economics and mathematics has to be on consecutive days. Hence, these lectures will be scheduled as
 

20. Which lecture is scheduled between Statistics and English?
(a) Economics (b) History
(c) Mathematics (d) No lecture
Ans. (b)

21. Which lecture is the last one in the week?
(a) History (b) English
(c) Mathematics (d) Economics
Ans. (c)

22. Which lecture is scheduled on Wednesday?
(a) Statistics (b) Economics
(c) English (d) History
Ans. (c)

23. Which lecture is scheduled before the Mathematics lecture?
(a) Economics (b) History
(c) Statistics (d) English
Ans. (a)

24. Two glasses of equal volume are respectively half and three-fourths filled with milk. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. They are then filled to the brim by adding water. Their contents are then poured into another vessel. What will be the ratio of milk to water in this vessel?
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 2 : 3
(c) 3 : 2 (d) 5 : 3
Ans. (d)
Exp: Assume two vessels to be 100 liters of capacity. Hence, first beaker will have 50 liters of milk and 50 liters of water. And second beaker will have 75 liters of milk and 25 liters of water. Mixing these two, we will get 125 liters of milk and 75 liters of water. Thus, the ratio of milk and water will be 125 : 75 = 5 : 3. Hence, answer is (d).
25. Consider the following statements:
1. All machines consume energy.
2. Electricity provides energy.
3. Electrically operated machines are cheap to maintain.
4. Electrically operated machines do not cause pollution.
Which one of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All machines are run by electric energy.
(b) There is no form of energy other than electricity.
(c) Most machines are operated on electric energy.
(d) Electrically operated machines are preferable to use.

Ans. (d)
Exp: As per the question, Electricity is one mode of energy and there can be other modes of getting energy. Although, question talks about positives of electricity and thus, electrically operated machines are preferable to use. Hence answer is (d).
26. Examine the following statements:
1. None but the rich can afford air-travel.
2. Some of those who travel by air become sick.
3. Some of those who become sick require treatment.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements?
(a) All the rick persons travel by air.
(b) Those who travel by air become sick.
(c) All the rick persons become sick.
(d) All those who travel by air are rich.
Ans. (d)
Exp: As per the first statement, only Rich persons can travel by air. Hence, answer is (d).
27. In five flats, one above the other, live five professionals. The professor has to go up to meet his IAS officer friend. The doctor is equal friendly to all, and has to go up as frequently as go down. The engineer has to go up to meet his MLA friend above whose flat lives the professor's friend.
From the ground floor to the top floor, in what order do the five professionals live?
(a) Engineer, Professor, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA
(b) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, IAS officer, MLA
(c) IAS officer, Engineer, Doctor, Professor, MLA
(d) Professor, Engineer, Doctor, MLA, IAS officer
Ans. (d)
Exp: Professor’s friend is IAS officer as denoted in the first condition. The last condition denotes that IAS officer lives in the flat above that of the MLA. This is only in the case of option (d).

Directions for the following 15 (fifteen) items:
Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage – I
Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is revealed when one asks questions such as 'what is the purpose of education?' The answer, too often, are to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility', 'wider/higher (in terms of income) opportunities', and 'to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse fields for national human power in diverse fields for national development'. But in its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social attributes. It must be respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and does have enormous use value. Education, then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the sense of converting or turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the mind the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of through. It is an inner process of moral – intellectual development.

28. What do you understand by the 'instrumentalist' view of education?
(a) Education is functional and utilitarian is its purposes.
(b) Education is meant to fulfill human needs
(c) The purpose of education is to train the human intellect.
(d) Education is meant to achieve moral development.
Ans. (a)

29. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because
(a) It helps to acquire qualification for employment
(b) it helps in upward mobility and acquiring social status.
(c) it is an inner process of moral and intellectual development
(d) All the (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context.
Ans. (c)

30. Education is a process in which 
(a) students are converted into trained professionals.
(b) opportunities for higher income are generated
(c) individuals develop self-critical awareness and independence of thought.
(d) qualifications for upward mobility are acquired.
Ans. (c)
Passage – 2
Chemical pesticides lose their role in sustainable agriculture if the pests evolve resistance. The evolution of pesticide resistance is simply natural selection in action. It is almost certain to occur when vast numbers of a genetically variable population are killed. One or a few individuals may be unusually resistant (perhaps because they possess an enzyme that can detoxify the pesticide). If the pesticide is applied repeatedly, each successive generation of the pest will contain a larger proportion of resistant individuals. Pest typically have a high intrinsic rate of reproduction and so a few individuals in one generation may give rise to hundreds or thousands in the next, and resistance spreads very rapidly in a population.
This problem was often ignored in the past, even though the first case of DDT (dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane) resistance was reported as early as 1946. There is exponential increase in the number of invertebrates that have evolved resistance and in the number of pesticides against which resistance has evolved. Resistance has been recorded in every family of arthropod (including dipterans such as mosquitoes and house flies, as well as beetles, moths, wasps, fleas, lice and mites) as well as in weeds and plant pathogens. Take the Alabama leafworm, a moth pest of cotton, as an example. It has developed resistance in one or more regions of the world to aldrin, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, lindane and toxaphene.
If chemical pesticides brought nothing but problems, - if their use was intrinsically and acutely unsustainable – then they would already have fallen out of widespread use. This has not happened. Instead, their rate of production has increased rapidly. The ratio of cost to benefit for individual agricultural producer has remained in favour of pesticide use. In the USA, insecticides have been estimated to benefit the agriculture products to benefit the agricultural products to the tune of around $5 for every $spent.
Moreover, in many poorer countries, the prospect of imminent mass starvation, or of an epidemic disease, are so frightening that the social and health costs of using pesticides have to be ignored. In general the use of pesticides is justified by objective measures such as 'lives saved', 'economic efficiency of food production' and 'total food produced'. In these very fundamental senses, their use may be described as sustainable. In practice, sustainability depends on continually developing new pesticides that keep at last one step ahead of the pests – pesticides that are less persistent, biodegradable and more accurately targeted at the pests.

31. “The evolution of pesticide resistance is natural selection in action.” What does it actually imply?
(a) It is very natural for many organisms to have pesticide resistance.
(b) Pesticide resistance among organisms is a universal phenomenon.
(c) Some individuals in any given population show resistance after the application of pesticides.
(d) None of the statements (a) (b) and (c) given is correct.
Ans. (c)

32. With reference to the passage, consider the following statement:
1. Use of chemical pesticides has become imperative in all the poor countries of the world.
2. Chemical pesticides should not have any role in sustainable agriculture.
3. One pest can develop resistance to many pesticides.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)

33. Though the problem associated with the use of chemical pesticides is known for a long time, their widespread use has not waned. Why?
(a) Alternatives to chemical pesticides do not exist at all
(b) New pesticides are not invented at all
(c) Pesticides are biodegradable
(d) None of the statements (a) (b) and (c) given is correct.
Ans. (d)

34. How do pesticides act as agents for the selection of resistant individuals in any pest population?
1. It is possible that in a pest, population the individuals will behave differently due to their genetic makeup
2. Pests do possess the ability to detoxify the pesticides.
3. Evolution of pesticide resistance is equally distributed in pest population.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans. (d)

35. Why is the use of chemical pesticides generally justified by giving the examples of poor and developing countries?
1. Developed countries can afford to do away with use of pesticides by adapting to organic farming, but it is imperative for poor and developing countries to use chemical pesticides.
2. In poor and developing countries, the pesticide addresses the problem of epidemic diseases of crops and eases the food problem.
3. The social and health costs of pesticide use are generally ignored in poor and developing countries
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans. (c)

36. What does the passage imply?
(a) Alternative options to chemical pesticides should be promoted.
(b) Too much use of chemicals is not good for the ecosystem.
(c) There is no scope for the improvement of pesticides and making their use sustainable.
(d) Both the statements (a) and (b) above are correct.
Ans. (d)
Passage – 3
Today's developing economies use much less energy per capita than developed countries such as the United States did at similar incomes, showing the potential for lower-carbon growth. Adaptation and mitigation need to be integrated into a climate-smart development strategy that increases resilience reduces the threat of further global warming and improves development outcomes. Adaptation and mitigation measures can advance development, and prosperity can raise income and foster better institutions. A healthier population living in better-built houses and with access to bank loans and social securing is better equipped to deal with a changing climate and its consequence. Advancing robust, resilient development policies that promote adaptation is needed today because changes in the climate, already begun, will increase even in the short term.
The spread of economic prosperity has always been intertwined with adaptation to changing ecological conditions. But as growth has altered the environment and as environmental change has accelerated, sustaining growth and adaptability demands greater capacity to understand our environment, generate new adaptive technologies and practices, and diffuse them widely. As economic historians have explained, much of humankind's creative potential has been directed at adapting to the changing world. But adaption cannot cope with all the impacts related to climate change, especially as larger changes unfold in the long term.
Countries cannot grow out of harm's way fast enough to match the changing climate. And some growth strategies, whether driven by the government or the market, can also add to vulnerability – particularly if they overexploit natural resources. Under the soviet development plan, irrigated cotton cultivation expanded in water-stressed Central Asia and led to the near disappearance of the Aral Sea, threatening the livelihoods of fishermen, herders and farmers. And clearing mangroves the natural coastal buffers against storm surges – to make way for intensive farming or housing development, increases the physical vulnerability of coastal settlements, whether in Guinea or in Louisiana.
37. Which of the following conditions of growth can add to vulnerability?
1. When the growth occurs due to excessive exploitation of mineral resources and forests.
2. When the growth brings about a change in humankind's creative potential.
3. When the growth is envisaged only for providing houses and social security to the people.
4. When the growth occurs due to emphasis on farming only.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)

38. What does low-carbon growth imply in the present context?
1. More emphasis on the use of renewable sources of energy.
2. Less emphasis on manufacturing sector and more emphasis on agriculture sector.
3. Switching over from monoculture practices to mixed farming.
4. Less demand for goods and services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) None of the above implies low-carbon growth
Ans. (a)

39. Which of the following conditions is/are necessary for sustainable economic growth?
1. Spreading of economic prosperity more
2. Popularising/spreading of adaptive technologies widely.
3. Investing on research in adaptation and mitigation technology.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
40. Which of the following inferences can be made from the passage?
1. Rained crops should not be cultivated in irrigated areas. 
2. Farming under water-deficient areas should not be a part of development strategy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Nether 1 nor 2 
Ans. (a)
41. Consider the following assumption:
1. Sustainable economic growth demands the use of creative potential of men. 
2. Intensive agriculture can lead to ecological backlash. 
3. Spread of economic prosperity can adversely affect the ecology and environment.
With reference to the passage, which of the above assumptions is/are valid?  
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1 , 2 and 3 
Ans. (a)
42. Which one of the following statements constitutes the central theme of this passage?
1. Countries with greater economic prosperity are better equipped to deal with the consequences of climate change.  
2. Adaptation and mitigation should be integrated with development strategies. 
3. Rapid economic growth should not be pursued by both developed and developing countries.
4. Some countries resort to overexploitation of natural resources for the sake of rapid development 
Ans. (b)
Diections for the following 11 (eleven) items: Read the following three passages and answer the items that follow each passage. Your answer to these items should be based on the passages only.
Passage - 1
Invasions of exotic species into new geographic areas sometimes occur naturally and without human agency. However, human action have increased this trickle to a flood. Human-caused introduction may occur either accidentally as a consequence of human transport, or internationally but illegally to serve some private purpose or legitimately to procure some hoped-for public benefit by bringing a pest under control, producing new agricultural products or providing novel recreational opportunities. Many introduced species are assimilated into communities without much obvious effect. However, some have been responsible for dramatic changes to native species and natural communities. For example, the accidental introduction of the brown tree snake Boiga irregularies into Guam, an island in the Pacific, has through nest predation reduced 10 endemic forest bird species to the point of extinction. 
One of the major reasons for the world's great biodiversity is the occurrence of centers of endemism so that similar habitats in different parts of the would are occupied by different groups of species that happen to have evolved there. If every species naturally had access to everywhere on the globe, we might expect a relatively small number of successful species to become dominant in each biome. The extent to which this homogenization can happen naturally is restricted by the limited powers of dispersal of most species in the face of the physical barriers that exist to dispersal. By virture of the transport opportunities offered by humans, these barriers have been breached by an ever-increasing number of exotic species. The effects of introduction have been to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into something much more homogeneous.
It would be wrong, however, to conclude that introducing species to a region will inevitably cause a decline in species richness there. For example, there are numerous species of plants, invertebrates and vertebrates found in continental Europe but absent from the British Isles (many because they have so far failed to decolonize after the last glaciations). Their introduction would be likely to augment British biodiversity. The significant detrimental effect noted above arise where aggressive species provide a novel challenge to endemic biotas ill-equipped to deal with them.
43. With reference to the passage, which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Introduction of exotic species into new geographical areas always leads to reduced biodiversity. 
(b) Exotic species introduced by man into new areas have always greatly altered the native ecosystems. 
(c) Man is the only reason to convert a hugely diverse range of local community compositions into more homogeneous ones..
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) is correct in this context. 
Ans. (d)
44. Why does man introduce exotic species into new geographical areas? 
1. To breed exotic species with local varieties. 
2. To increase agricultural productivity. 
3. For beautification and landscaping. 
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans. (b)
45. How is homogenization prevented under natural conditions?
(a) Evolution of groups of species specific to local habitats.
(b) Presence of oceans and mountain ranges.
(c) Strong adaptation of groups of species to local physical and climatic conditions. 
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context. 
Ans. (d)
46. How have the human beings influenced the biodiversity?
1. By smuggling live organisms. 
2. By building highways.
3. By making ecosystems sensitive so that new species are not allowed. 
4. By ensuring that new species do not have major impact on local species. 
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4 
Ans. (a)
47. What can be the impact of invasion of exotic species on an ecosystem?
1. Erosion of endemic species. 
2. Change in the species composition of the community of the ecosystem.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans. (c)
Passage - 2
Most champions of democracy have been rather reticent in suggesting that democracy would itself promote development and enhancement of social welfare- they have tended to see them as good but distinctly separate and largely independent goals. The detractors of democracy, on the other hand, seemed to have been quite willing to express their diagnosis of what they see as serious tensions between democracy and development. The theorists of the practical split-"Make up your mind: do you want democracy, or instead, do you want development?' – often came, at least to start with, from East Asian countries, and their voice grew in influence as several of these countries were immensely successful – through the 1970s and 1980s and even later – in promoting economic growth without pursuing democracy. 
To deal with these issues we have to pay particular attention to both the content of what can be called development and to the interpretation of democracy (in particular to the respective roles of voting and of public reasoning). The assessment of development cannot be divorced from the lives that people can lead and the real freedom that they enjoy. Development can scarcely be seen merely in terms of enhancement f inanimate objects of convenience, such as a rise in the GNP (or in personal incomes, or industrialization – important as they may be as means to the real ends. Their value must depend on what they do to the lives and freedom of the people involved, which must be central to the idea of development.
If development is understood in a broader way, with a focus on human lives, then it becomes immediately clear that the relation between development and democracy has to be seen partly in terms of their constitutive connection, rather than only through their external links. Even thought eh question has often been asked whether political freedom is "conducive to development", we must not miss the crucial recognition that political liberties and democratic rights are among the "constituent component" of development. Their relevance for development does not have to be established indirectly through their contribution to the growth of GNP. 
48. According to the passage, why is a serious tension perceived between democracy and development by the detractors of democracy?
(a) Democracy and development are distinct and separate goals. 
(b) Economic growth can be promoted successfully without pursuing a democratic system of governance.
(c) Non-democratic regimes deliver economic growth faster and fear more successfully than democratic ones. 
(d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above are correct in this context. 
Ans. (b)
49. According to the passage, what should be the ultimate assessment/aim/view of development?
(a) Rise in the per capita income and industrial growth rates. 
(b) Improvement in the Human Development Index and GNP. 
(c) Rise in the savings and consumption trends. 
(d) Extent of real freedom that citizens enjoy.
Ans. (d)
50. What does a “constitutive” connection between democracy and development imply?
(a) The relation between them has to be seen through external links. 
(b) Political and civil rights only can lead to economic development. 
(c) Political liberties and democratic rights are essential elements of development. 
(d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Ans. (c)

Passage- 3
The need for Competition Law becomes more evident when foreign direct investment (FDI) is liberalized. The impact of FDI is not always pro-competitive. Very often FDI takes the form of a foreign corporation acquiring a domestic enterprise or establishing a joint venture with one. By making such as substantially lessen competition and gain a dominant position in the relevant market, thus charging higher prices. Another scenario is where the affiliates of two separate multinational companies (MNCs) have been established in competition with one another in a particular developing economy, following the liberalization of FDI. Subsequently the parent companies overseas merge. With the affiliates no longer remaining independent, competition in the host country may be virtually eliminated and the prices of the products may be artificially inflated. Most of these adverse consequences of mergers and acquisitions by MNCs can be avoided if an effective competition law is in place. Also, an economy competition law is in a better position to attract FDI than one that has not. This is not just because most MNCs are expected to be accustomed to the operation of such a law in their home countries and know how to deal with such concerns but also that MNCs expect competition authorities to ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms. 
51. With reference to the passage, consider the following statements:
1. It is desirable that the impact of Foreign Direct Investment should be pro-competitive. 
2. The entry of foreign investors invariably leads to the inflated prices in domestic markets. . 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans. (a)
52. According to the passage, how does a foreign investor dominate the relevant domestic market?
1. Multinational companies get accustomed to domestic laws. 
2. Foreign companies establish joint ventures with domestic companies. 
3. Affiliates in a particular market/sector lose their independence as their parent companies overseas  merge.
4. Foreign companies lower the cost of their products as compared to that of products of domestic companies. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
53. What is the inference from this passage? 
(a) Foreign investors and multination companies always dominate domestic market.
(b) It is not in the best interest of domestic economy to allow mergers companies.
(c) With competition law, it is easy ensure a level playing field between domestic and foreign firms. 
(d) For countries with open economy Foreign Direct Investment is essential for growth.
Ans. (c)
54. Examine the following statements:
1. I watch TV only if I am bored.
2. I am never bored when I have my brother's company. 
3. Whenever I go to the theatre I take my brother along. 
Which one of the following conclusions is valid in the context of the above statements?
(a) If I and bored, I watch TV.
(c) If I am bored, I seek my brother’s company. 
(d) If I am not bored, I do not watch TV. 
Ans. (d)
Exp: Since I watch TV only when I am bored, I will not watch TV if I am not bored. Hence option (d) is correct answer.

55 Only six roads A, B, C, P, Q, and R connect a military camp to the rest of the country. Only one out of A, P and R is open at any one time. If B is open during storms. P is closed during floods. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct? 
(a) Under normal conditions only three roads are open.
(b) During storms at least one road is open.
(c) During floods only three roads are open.
(d) During calamities all roads are closed. 
Ans. (b)
Exp: Since only one of A, P and R is open at a time, there will always be at least one road open during all the times. Hence, correct answer is (b).

56. Examine the following statements:
1. None but students are members of the club. 
2. Some members of the club are married persons. 
3. All married persons are invited for dance. 
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements? 
(a) All students are invited for dance. 
(b) All married students of the club are invited for dance. 
(c) All members of the club are married persons. 
(d) None of the above conclusions can be drawn. 
Ans. (d)
Exp: Option (a) is not correct as all students are not invited and only married students are invited. Option (b) is not correct as even non member of the club can be invited for dance. Option (c) is not correct as there is a complete possibility that some members of the club are not married. Hence, correct answer to the question is (d)

57. Four political parties W, X Y and Z decided to set up a joint candidate for the coming parliamentary elections. The formula agreed by them was the acceptance of to candidate by moist of the parties. Four aspiring candidates, A, B, C and D approached the parties for their tickets.  
A was acceptable to W but not to Z. 
B was acceptable to Y but not to X. 
C was acceptable to W and Y. 
D was acceptable to W and X. 
When candidate B was preferred by W and Z, candidate C was preferred by X and Z , and candidate A was acceptable to X but not to Y, who got the ticket?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
Ans. (c)
Exp: As per the question following acceptance and non acceptance are given. 

Hence, only C is accepted to all the parties and he will get the ticket. Hence, answer is (c)
58. Consider the following statements.
1. All X-brand cars parked here are white. 
2. Some of them have radial types. 
3. All X-brand cars manufactured after 1986 have radial tyres.
4. All cars are not X-brand. 
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn from the above statements ? 
(a) Only white cars are parked here.
(b) Some white X-brand cars with radial tyres are parked here.
(c) Cars other than X-brand cannot have radial tyres.
(d) Most of the X-brand cars are manufactured before 1986.
Ans. (b)
Exp: All X-branded cars parked here are white and some of them have radial tyres. Hence some white X-brand cars parked here have radial tyres and hence answer is (b).
59. Consider the following statement.
The Third World War, if it ever starts, will end very quickly with the possible end of civilization. It is only the misuse of nuclear power which will trigger it. 
(a) Nuclear power will be used in the Third World War.
(b) There will be no civilization left after the Third World War.
(c) The growth of nuclear power will destroy civilization in the long run.
(d) The Third World War will not take place.
Ans. (b)
Exp: There is a possibility of end of civilization with the use of nuclear power which will be used in third world war which if starts ever. The passage speaks very negative about misuse of nuclear power and it infers that it will be used some time or the other. Hence, answer will be (b).
60. The elements of the problem figures given below are changing with a certain rule as we observe them from left to right:
\
According to this rule, which of the following would be the next figure if the changes were continued with the same rule?
\

Ans. (d)
Exp: In the first figure, triangle is pointed towards up, followed by pointed towards down, followed by pointed towards up, followed by pointed towards down. Hence, in the answer choice triangle should point up and only option (d) is pointing up. Hence, answer is (d).
61. Consider the following informaiton regarding the performance of a class of 1000 students in four different tests:
\
If a student scores 74 marks in each of the four tests, in which one of the followint tests is her performance the best comparatively?
(a) Test I (b) Test II
(c) Test III (d) Test IV
Ans. (b)
Exp: In test II and test I, average marks are minimum and thus a score of 74 will be best relatively. Whereas since range of marks is test II is up to 75, thus his performance will be best in test II comparatively. Hence correct answer is (b).
62. Six squares are coloured, front and back, red (R), blue (B), yellow (Y), green (G), white (W) and orange (O) and are hinged together as shown in the figure given below. If they are folded to form a cube, what would be the face opposite the white face?
\
(a) R (b) G
(c) B (d) O
Ans. (c)
Exp: Joining the figure, we will realize that W and B will be opposite to each other and thus (c) is the right answer choice.
63. In the above figure, circle P represents hardworking people, circle Q represents intelligent people, circle R represents truthful people, and circle S represents honest people. Which region represents the people who are intelligent, honest and truthful but not hardworking?
\

(a) 6 (b) 7
(c) 8 (d) 11
Ans. (a)
Exp: Since, we require not hard working, option (b), (c) and (d) get eliminated and thus answer has to be (a).
64. Three views of a cube following a particular motion are given below:
\
What is the letter opposite to A?
(a) H (b) P
(c) B (d) M
Ans. (a)
Exp: In a cube, any pair of adjoining sides will have two common adjoining sides which will be opposite to each other. In the given question, these two sides are A and H. Hence, H is opposite to A. Hence correct answer option is (a).

65.
\
Which one of the figures shown below occupies the blank space (?) in the matrix given above?
\
Ans. (d) 
 Exp: In each row, first and third circle have same coloured quadrant where as the middle circle has opposite quadrant coloured. Hence (d) is the right answer. 

Directions for the followint 8 (eight) items: The following eight items  (questions 66 to 73) are based on three passages in English to test the comprehension of English language and therefore these items do not have Hindi version. Read each passage and answer the items that follow.

Passage – I
For fourteen and a half months I lived in my little cell or room in the Dehradun jail, and I b egan to feel as if I was almost a part of It. I was familiar with every bit of it, I knew every mark and dent on the whitewashed walls and on the uneven floor and the ceiling with its moth-eaten rafters. Ini the little yard outside I greeted little tufts of grass and odd bits of stone as old frients. I was not alone in my cell, for several colonies of wasp and hornets lived there, and many lizards found a home behind the rafters, emerging in the evenings in search of prey.

66. Which of the following explains best the sentence in the passage "I was almost a part of it"?
(a) I was not alone in the cell.
(b) I was familiar with every bit of the cell.
(c) I greeted little tufts of grass like old friends.
(d) I felt quite at home in the cell.
Ans. (b)

67. The passage attempts to describe:
(a) the general conditions of the country's jails.
(b) the prisoner's capacity to notice the minute details of his surroundings.
(c) the prisoner's conscious efforts to overcome the loneliness.
(d) the prisoner's ability to live happily with other creatures.
Ans. (c)

68. The author of the passage seems to suggest that:
(a) it is possible to adjust oneself to uncongenial surroundings.
(b) the conditions in Indian prisons are not bad.
(c) it is not difficult to spend one's time in a prison.
(d) there is a need to improve the conditions in our jails.
Ans. (a)

Passage – II
We started pitching the highest camp that has ever been made. Everything took five times as long as it would have taken in a place where there was enough air to breathe; but at last we got the tent up, and when we crawled in, it was not too bad. There was only a light wind, and inside it was not too cold for us to take off our gloves. At night most climbers take off their boots; but I prefer to keep them on. Hillary, on the other hand, took his off and laid them next to his sleeping bag.

69. What does the expression "pitching the highest camp" imply?
(a) They reached the summit of the highest mountain in the world.
(b) Those who climbed that far earlier did not pitch any camp.
(c) So far nobody has ever climbed that high.
(d) They were too many climbers and needed to pitch a big camp.
Ans. (c)

70. They took a long time to finish the work because:
(a) they were very tired.
(b) there was not enough air to breathe.
(c) it was very cold.
(d) it was very dark.
Ans. (b)

71. When they crawled into the tent?
(a) they took off their gloves because it was not very cold.
(b) they could not take off their gloves because it was very cold.
(c) they took off their gloves though it was very cold.
(d) they did not take off their gloves though it was not cold.
Ans. (a)
Passage – III
A local man, staying on the top floor of an old wooden house, was awakened at midnight by a fire. Losing his way in a smoke-filled passage, he missed the stairway and went into another room. He picked up a bundle to protect his face from the fire and immediately fell through the floor below where he managed to escape through a clear doorway. The "bundle" proved to be the baby of the Mayor's wife. The "hero" was congratulated by all.

72. The man went into another room because:
(a) he did not know where exactly the stairway was.
(b) the passage was full of smoke.
(c) he was extremely nervous.
(d) he stumbled on a bundle.
Ans. (b)

73. The man was called a hero because he
(a) expressed his willingness to risk his life to save others.
(b) managed to escape from the fire.
(c) showed great courage in fighting the fire.
(d) saved a life.
Ans. (d)

Directions for the following 7 (seven) items : Given below are seven items:

Given below are seven items. Each item describes a situation and is followed four possible responses. Indicate the response you find most appropriate. Choose only one response for each item. The responses will be evaluated based on the level of appropriateness for the given situation.

Please attempt all the items. There is no penalty for wrong answers for these seven items.

74. You have differences of opinion regarding the final report prepared by your subordinate that is to be submitted urgently. The subordinate is justifying the information given in the report. You would….
(a) Convince the subordinate that he is wrong.
(b) Tell him to reconsider the results.
(c) Revise the report on your own.
(d) Tell him not to justify the mistake.
Ans. (c)

75. You are competing with your batch-mate for a prestigious award to be decided based on an oral presentation. Ten minutes are allowed for each presentation. You have been asked by the committee to finish on time. Your friend, however, is allowed more than the stipulated time period. You would….
(a) Lodge a complaint to the chairperson against the discrimination.
(b) Not listen to any justification from the committee.
(c) Ask for withdrawal of your name.
(d) Protest and leave the place.
Ans. (a)

76. You are handling a time-bound project. During the project review meeting, you find that the project is likely to get delayed due to lack of cooperation of the team members. You would…
(a) Warn the team members for their non-cooperation.
(b) Look into reasons for non-cooperation.
(c) Ask for the replacement of team members.
(d) Ask for extension of time citing reasons.
Ans. (b)

77. You are the chairperson of a state sports committee. You have received a complaint and later it was found that an athelete in the junioir age category who has won a medal has crossed the age criteria by 5 days. You would….
(a) Ask the screening committee for a clarification.
(b) Ask the athlete to return the medal.
(c) Ask the athlete to get an affidavit from the court declaring his/her age.
(d) Ask the members of the sports committee for their views.
Ans. (a)

78. You are handling a priority project and have been meeting all the deadlines and are therefore planning your leave during the project. Your immediate boss does not grant your leave citing the urgency of the project. You would….
(a) Proceed on leave without waiting for the sanction.
(b) Pretend to be sick and take leave.
(c) Approach higher authority to reconsider the leave application.
(d) Tell the boss that it is not justified.
Ans. (c)

79. You are involved in setting up a water supply project in a remote area. Full recovery of cost is impossible in any case. The income levels in the area are low and 25% of the population is below poverty line (BPL). When a decision has to be taken on pricing you would….
(a) Recommend that the supply of water be free of charge in all respects.
(b) Recommend that the users pay a one time fixed sum for the installation of taps and the usage of water be free.
(c) Recommend that a fixed monthly charge be levied only on the non-BPL families and for BPL families water should be free.
(d) Recommend that the users pay a charge based on the consumption of water with differentiated charges for non-BPL and BPL families.
Ans. (c)

80. As a citizen you have some work with a government department. The official calls you again and again; and without directly asking you, sends out feelers for a bribe. You want to get your work done. You would…..
(a) Give a bribe.
(b) Behave as if you have not understood the feelers and persist with your application.
(c) Go to the higher officer for help verbally complaining about feelers.
(d) Send in a formal complaint.
Ans. (b)